An older client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in the right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of the symptoms?

Destruction of joint cartilage.

Systemic inflammatory response.

Loss of bone mineral density.

Infectious process in the synovial fluid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rationale

A. Osteoarthritis is characterized by the gradual destruction of joint cartilage. Cartilage serves as a cushion between the bones in a joint, and its deterioration leads to pain, stiffness, and reduced joint function. As the cartilage wears away, bones may rub directly against each other, causing further pain and damage.

B. Osteoarthritis is primarily a degenerative condition rather than an inflammatory one. While mild inflammation can occur in OA, it is not as prominent as in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. In OA, inflammation is secondary to cartilage damage rather than a primary driver of the disease process.

C. Loss of bone mineral density is more characteristic of osteoporosis, a condition where bones become weak and brittle. Osteoporosis involves a decrease in bone mass throughout the skeleton, whereas osteoarthritis specifically targets the joints and affects cartilage rather than bone density.

D. An infectious process in the synovial fluid could indicate septic arthritis, which is characterized by infection in the joint space. This is typically associated with acute symptoms such as severe joint pain, swelling, warmth, and fever.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale

A. This statement is partially true as most sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including syphilis, are primarily transmitted through sexual intercourse. However, not all STIs are exclusively transmitted through sexual contact.

B. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and can be transmitted through direct contact with a syphilitic sore (chancre) during vaginal, anal, or oral sex. If a person has syphilis and engages in unprotected sex with a partner who is not treated, they can potentially contract or transmit the infection again, leading to reinfection.

C. While contraceptives such as condoms provide protection against unintended pregnancy and some STIs, including syphilis, they do not offer complete protection against all STIs. Condoms are effective in reducing the risk of transmission of syphilis when used consistently and correctly, but they are not 100% protective.

D. Using safe sex practices, such as consistent and correct use of condoms, reduces the risk of acquiring or transmitting STIs, including syphilis. Safe sex practices also include mutual monogamy and regular testing for STIs, especially for those who have multiple sexual partners or engage in high-risk sexual behaviors.

A. Flat jugular vein distention (JVD) at 45 degrees. B. Abnormal level of consciousness. C. Nausea with vomiting. D. Headache with sudden onset.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale

A. JVD is typically an indicator of increased central venous pressure and can be associated with heart failure or fluid overload. In this scenario, flat JVD suggests decreased venous return, which may exacerbate the client's hypotension. While important, it may not be the most immediate concern compared to other options.

B. Changes in consciousness, such as confusion, disorientation, or loss of consciousness, are critical signs that indicate poor cerebral perfusion. In this case, the rapid ventricular rate and possibly inadequate cardiac output may not be meeting cerebral perfusion needs, leading to altered mental status. This finding requires urgent attention to prevent further deterioration.

C. Nausea and vomiting can indicate inadequate perfusion to the gastrointestinal tract due to hypotension or impaired cardiac output. While important to assess for fluid and electrolyte balance, it is less urgent compared to potential changes in mental status or perfusion to vital organs.

D. A sudden onset headache can be indicative of various issues, including hypertension, cerebral ischemia, or intracranial hemorrhage. However, in the context of atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and hypotension, other neurological signs such as altered mental status or focal neurological deficits would typically be more concerning.

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An older client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in the right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of the symptoms?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with the sexually transmitted infection (STI) syphilis. The client reports having unprotected sex. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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