An older adult female asks the practical nurse (PN) if she should get a Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination because she gets cold sores on her mouth when she is sick or stressed.
Which response should the PN provide?
The vaccine is not useful if you have ever had a case of shingles.
If you are 60 or older, the one-time vaccination is recommended
You do not need to get this vaccination if you have had chicken pox
The vaccination minimizes outbreaks of cold sores
The Correct Answer is B
The Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination is recommended for adults aged 60 years and older, regardless of whether they have had shingles or chicken pox before. The vaccine can reduce the risk of developing shingles and its complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia.
The other options are not correct because:
a. The vaccine is useful even if the person has had a case of shingles before, as shingles can recur in some people. The vaccine can prevent or reduce the severity of future episodes.
c. The person needs to get this vaccination even if they have had chicken pox, as shingles is caused by the reactivation of the same virus that causes chicken pox (varicella-zoster virus). The vaccine can boost the immunity against the virus and prevent it from reactivating.
d. The vaccination does not minimize outbreaks of cold sores, as cold sores are caused by a different virus (herpes simplex virus). The vaccine has no effect on this virus or its symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While monitoring urinary output is important for overall assessment, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation of suspected stroke. The client's neurological symptoms take precedence.
B) Incorrect- Positioning might be relevant to preventing complications, but it is not the highest priority intervention in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client's neurological status and determining appropriate intervention.
C) Incorrect- Although head positioning is relevant for intracranial pressure management, it is not the immediate priority. The nurse should first assess the time of symptom onset and determine if the client is experiencing an acute stroke.
D) Correct- The client's symptoms, including sudden severe headache, facial numbness, facial droop, and weakness on one side, are suggestive of a stroke. The nurse should prioritize assessing the time of symptom onset, as time is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Rapid intervention can improve outcomes in stroke cases, especially when considering interventions like thrombolytic therapy. The other options are not as directly relevant to the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While a second IV site might be considered if the first one is causing significant discomfort, it's not the initial intervention. The nurse should first address the immediate concern of pain.
B) Correct- Pain at the IV site during infusion might indicate infiltration or irritation. Stopping the infusion is the most immediate intervention to prevent further discomfort and potential complications like tissue damage.
C) Incorrect- While assessing for blood return is important to ensure proper IV placement, it's not the initial intervention for managing pain caused by the infusion.
D) Incorrect- Discontinuing the IV might be considered if the pain is severe and unmanageable, but the nurse should initially try to address the discomfort without removing the IV.
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