An older adult client arrives at the clinic describing a new onset of urinary incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Obtain a clean, voided urine specimen for analysis.

Evaluate the client's response to bladder training efforts.

Provide protective undergarments for the client.

Encourage increased fluid intake for 24 hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Obtaining a urine specimen is essential for analyzing possible infections or other abnormalities that could be causing urinary incontinence.

Choice B reason: While evaluating the client's response to bladder training is important, it is not the first step before diagnosing the cause of new-onset incontinence.

Choice C reason: Providing protective undergarments may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of the incontinence.

Choice D reason: Encouraging increased fluid intake could potentially exacerbate incontinence symptoms and is not a diagnostic intervention.

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Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Step 1: We need to find out how many mL contain 10 mg of loratadine. Since 5 mg of loratadine is in 5 mL, we can set up a proportion to find out how many mL contain 10 mg.

So, 5 mg is to 5 mL as 10 mg is to X mL.

This gives us the equation: (5 mg ÷ 5 mL) = (10 mg ÷ X mL)

Step 2: Solving for X gives us X = (10 mg × 5 mL) ÷ 5 mg

Step 3: Simplifying gives us X = 10 mL

So, the client needs to take 10 mL of the loratadine suspension to get a dose of 10 mg.

Now, we need to convert this volume in mL to teaspoons, using the conversion factor you provided (1 teaspoon = 5 mL).

Step 4: We set up the conversion as follows: 10 mL × (1 tsp ÷ 5 mL)

Step 5: Simplifying gives us 2 tsp

So, the nurse should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the loratadine suspension.

A. Initiate bilateral intermittent sequential pneumatic compression devices. B. Place an indwelling urinary catheter and measure strict intake and output. C. Notify the stroke team to assist with acute assessment and management. D. Administer aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: While pneumatic compression devices are used for DVT prevention, they are not the immediate intervention for suspected stroke.

Choice B reason: Placing an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first-line intervention for a patient with suspected stroke symptoms.

Choice C reason: Notifying the stroke team is the most appropriate action as the patient's symptoms suggest a possible stroke, requiring urgent evaluation and management.

Choice D reason: Aspirin may be used in the management of stroke, but only after a stroke has been confirmed and not as an immediate intervention.

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An older adult client arrives at the clinic describing a new onset of urinary incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has received a prescription for loratadine suspension, 10 mg to be taken orally once a day. The bottle is labeled as "Loratadine for Oral Suspension, USP 5 mg per 5 mL." How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take? (Please enter the numerical value only.)

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Patient Data: Exhibits Review H and P and laboratory results. Based on the laboratory data, the client has dropdown related to dropdown