An older adult male client arrives at the clinic reporting that his bladder always feels full. The client also reports a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating the urine stream. Which action should the nurse implement?

Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.

Instruct in effective techniques to cleanse the glans penis.

Palpate the client's suprapubic area for distention.

Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: While obtaining a urine specimen is important for diagnosing infection, it does not address the immediate discomfort and potential urinary retention the client may be experiencing.

Choice B reason: Cleansing the glans penis is part of good hygiene but does not address the client's symptoms of a full bladder and weak urine flow.

Choice C reason: Palpating for suprapubic distention can provide immediate information about bladder fullness and potential urinary retention, which may require prompt intervention.

Choice D reason: Maintaining a voiding diary is useful for tracking symptoms over time but does not provide an immediate assessment or intervention for the client's current symptoms.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Preparing for a cesarean delivery is not indicated solely based on the information provided. The patient is at 36 weeks with moderate pre-eclampsia and there are no immediate signs of fetal distress or a need for emergency delivery based on the nurse’s notes.
Choice B reason: Administering calcium gluconate is appropriate if there are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it acts as an antidote. The patient’s decreased level of consciousness and absent DTRs may suggest magnesium toxicity, making this a correct intervention.
Choice C reason: Obtaining blood pressure is a standard and ongoing requirement for monitoring a pre-eclampsia patient, especially after noting a significant drop in blood pressure from 170/98 mm Hg to 118/78 mm Hg, which could indicate an overcorrection or other issues.
Choice D reason: Stopping the infusion of magnesium sulfate is not indicated at this time. While the patient’s decreased LOC and absent DTRs are concerning, magnesium sulfate is critical for preventing seizures in pre-eclampsia and should not be stopped without clear signs of overdose and physician consultation.
Choice E reason: Increasing IV fluids is not indicated and could be harmful. The patient already has pulmonary edema and increasing fluids could exacerbate this condition, especially in the context of pre-eclampsia where fluid management needs to be carefully balanced.
Choice F reason: Administering oxygen is correct as the patient’s oxygen saturation has dropped from 98% to 93%, and the goal is to maintain it above 96% as per the physician’s orders.
Choice G reason: Obtaining serum magnesium level is correct because it is necessary to monitor for signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity given the patient’s symptoms of decreased LOC and absent DTRs.
Choice H reason: Preparing to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest is correct as the patient has signs that may suggest impending magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.

A. Remove dentures or other oral appliances. B. Lift and lock the side rails in place. C. Apply the client's positive airway pressure device. D. Elevate the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Removing dentures or other oral appliances may be necessary for some medical procedures, but it is not the most important intervention for a client with OSA who has just received an opioid patch.

Choice B reason: Lifting and locking the side rails in place is a standard safety measure, but it does not directly address the respiratory concerns associated with OSA and opioid use.

Choice C reason: Applying the client's positive airway pressure device is the most important intervention. Opioids can depress respiration, and for a client with OSA, ensuring the airway is patent and supported by a positive airway pressure device is crucial to prevent respiratory complications.

Choice D reason: Elevating the head of the bed can aid in respiration, but it is not as immediately critical as ensuring the use of a positive airway pressure device for a client with OSA who is receiving opioids.

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An older adult male client arrives at the clinic reporting that his bladder always feels full. The client also reports a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating the urine stream. Which action should the nurse implement?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Patient Data Exhibits The nurse reviews the assessment findings along with the physician orders. Which immediate interventions would the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

The nurse places an opioid patch on the chest of a client with intractable pain who also has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement before leaving the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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