An immunocompromised older adult has developed a urinary tract infection, and the healthcare team recognizes the need to prevent an exacerbation of the client's infection that could result in sepsis and septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the client's risk of septic shock?

Insert a new indwelling urinary catheter

Collect blood cultures

Initiate intravenous (IV) antibiotics

Obtain placement of an intravenous access for fluid administration

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Inserting a new indwelling urinary catheter could introduce new pathogens and increase the risk of infection rather than reduce it. Indwelling catheters are a known risk factor for urinary tract infections and should be avoided if possible.
B. Collecting blood cultures is an important diagnostic step, especially if sepsis is suspected. However, this action alone does not directly reduce the risk of septic shock. It is a part of the process but not the most immediate intervention.
C. Initiating intravenous (IV) antibiotics is the most critical intervention to reduce the risk of septic shock. Prompt administration of antibiotics can help control the infection before it progresses to sepsis, making this the priority action.
D. Obtaining placement of an intravenous access for fluid administration is necessary for managing sepsis or septic shock, but the first step should be administering antibiotics to treat the infection causing the sepsis. Fluid administration supports blood pressure and circulation but does not directly address the underlying infection.

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.

Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.

Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.

Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.

Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.

Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

A. Absence of pulmonary and peripheral edema B. Reduced stroke volume and cardiac output C. Reduced systolic and diastolic blood pressure D. Maintenance of adequate mean arterial pressure

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Absence of pulmonary and peripheral edema is not a primary goal of vasopressor therapy. The focus is on improving blood pressure and perfusion.
B. Vasopressor therapy aims to increase blood pressure, not reduce stroke volume or cardiac output.
C. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure, so reducing blood pressure is not an intended goal.
D. The primary goal of vasopressor therapy in septic shock is to maintain an adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP) to ensure adequate organ perfusion and prevent organ failure.

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An immunocompromised older adult has developed a urinary tract infection, and the healthcare team recognizes the need to prevent an exacerbation of the client's infection that could result in sepsis and septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the client's risk of septic shock?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain. Exhibits For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

The critical care nurse is preparing to initiate an infusion of a vasopressor medication to a client in septic shock. What goal of this treatment should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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