An elderly male patient, who has been experiencing abdominal pain, is admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility.
He hasn’t had a bowel movement in 7 days, his abdomen is distended, and he recently vomited 150 mL of dark brown emesis.
In what order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange from highest to lowest priority.
Complete a focused assessment.
Offer PRN pain medication.
Send the emesis sample to the lab.
Elevate the head of the bed.
The Correct Answer is A,D,B,C
- Complete a focused assessment: The first step in managing a patient with abdominal pain and other symptoms is to perform a comprehensive assessment. This will help identify the cause of the symptoms and guide subsequent interventions.
- Offer PRN pain medication: Once the immediate risks have been addressed, managing the patient’s pain is a priority. However, the choice of pain medication will depend on the results of the assessment.
- Send the emesis sample to the lab: Sending the emesis sample to the lab can provide valuable information about the cause of the patient’s symptoms. However, this is not as urgent as the other interventions.
- Elevate the head of the bed: Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the risk of aspiration, especially in a patient who has vomited. This should be done as soon as possible.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Activating the synchronization mode is important during cardioversion to avoid delivering a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarization, which could potentially cause a life-threatening arrhythmia. However, it is not the most crucial action.
Choice B rationale
Choosing a monitor lead with a tall R wave can help ensure that the cardioverter-defibrillator can sense the patient’s intrinsic cardiac activity. However, this is not the most crucial action.
Choice C rationale
Administering the prescribed sedative is the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion. Sedation is necessary to ensure patient comfort and cooperation during the procedure, as cardioversion can be painful.
Choice D rationale
Verifying the prothrombin time (PT) is important in patients receiving anticoagulation therapy, as atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation. However, it is not the most crucial action before initiating cardioversion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it is essential to assess how the client copes with auditory hallucinations, asking this question alone does not provide specific information about the content of the hallucinations.
Choice B rationale
The timing of the voices can provide some insight into the triggers or patterns of the hallucinations, but it does not directly address the content or potential impact of the hallucinations on the client’s behavior or mental state.
Choice C rationale
While medication efficacy is an important aspect of managing schizophrenia, it does not directly address the current experience of the client’s hallucinations.
Choice D rationale
Understanding what the voices are saying to the client can provide critical information about potential risks, including self-harm or harm to others, and can guide the treatment plan. This is why it is the most important question for the nurse to include in the client’s assessment.
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