A first-time pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit because her membranes ruptured 30 minutes ago.

The initial assessment indicates a 2 cm cervical dilation, 50% effacement, -2 station, vertex presentation, greenish- colored amniotic fluid, and contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes.

There is a decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contraction peaks.

What should the nurse do first?

Administer oxygen via a face mask.

Apply an internal fetal heart monitor.

Use a vibroacoustic stimulator.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Administering oxygen via a face mask is the first intervention the nurse should do. This is because the decrease in fetal heart rate after the last four contractions indicates possible fetal distress, which can be caused by insufficient oxygen. Administering oxygen to the mother can increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus, potentially alleviating the distress.
Choice B rationale
Applying an internal fetal heart monitor can provide more accurate and continuous data about the fetal heart rate and contractions. However, this is usually not the first intervention because it is invasive and can only be done if the cervix is sufficiently dilated and the membranes have ruptured.
Choice C rationale
Using a vibroacoustic stimulator is a method used to wake a sleeping baby in the womb during a non-stress test. It is not typically used in response to signs of fetal distress during labor.

Choice D rationale
Notifying the healthcare provider is important when there are signs of fetal distress. However, the nurse has interventions, such as administering oxygen, that they can and should do immediately while the healthcare provider is being notified.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Vegetarian lasagna with cheese and spinach, a tossed green salad with ranch dressing, and fresh fruit is a balanced meal. However, it may not be the best choice for a patient with type 2 diabetes due to the high carbohydrate content in the lasagna and the dressing.
Choice B rationale
Fried chicken breast, mashed potatoes, green beans, sliced tomatoes, and fresh apple pie is not the best choice for a patient with type 2 diabetes. Fried foods and mashed potatoes are high in carbohydrates and fats, which can raise blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
Grilled fish with whole-grain brown rice, steamed broccoli, and a pear poached in red wine is a good choice for a patient with type 2 diabetes. This meal is balanced with lean protein, whole grains, and vegetables, which can help control blood sugar levels.

Choice D rationale
Lean hamburger with cheese, tomato, and lettuce on a whole-wheat bun, and angel food cake is not the best choice for a patient with type 2 diabetes. Although the hamburger is lean, the whole-wheat bun and angel food cake are high in carbohydrates, which can raise blood sugar levels.

A. Ventilation B. Neurological status C. Exposure D. Current medications E. Allergies F. Circulation

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Ventilation, B. Neurological status, C. Exposure, F. Circulation.

Choice A: Ventilation Ventilation is a crucial part of the primary survey in trauma assessment. It involves assessing the patient’s respiratory rate and effort, use of accessory muscles, cyanosis, and chest wall movement. The normal respiratory rate for adults is between 12-20 breaths per minute.

Choice B: Neurological status Neurological status is another vital component of the primary survey. It often involves assessing the patient’s level of consciousness, often using tools like the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The GCS score can range from 3 (completely unresponsive) to 15 (responsive).

Choice C: Exposure Exposure involves removing the patient’s clothing to check for any hidden injuries. It’s an essential step in trauma assessment, but there’s no “normal range” for this as it’s a process rather than a measurable variable.

Choice D: Current medications While knowing a patient’s current medications is important in managing their care, it’s not typically part of the primary survey in trauma assessment. This information is usually gathered during the secondary survey.

Choice E: Allergies Like current medications, information about allergies is also crucial in managing patient care, but it’s not part of the primary survey. This information is usually collected during the secondary survey.

Choice F: Circulation Circulation is a critical part of the primary survey. It involves checking the patient’s heart rate, blood pressure, capillary refill time, and looking for any signs of external bleeding. The normal resting heart rate can range between 60-99 beats per minute.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse inspects the airway and finds no visible trauma, and the airway appears to be patent. What other assessment items are included in the primary survey? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]

Explanation

A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. What is the most crucial intervention for the nurse to include in this client’s care plan?

A nurse in the emergency department is collecting evidence for a rape kit from a woman who reports that she was raped while returning to her dormitory from the university library. Which intervention is most crucial for the nurse to implement?

A client with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital reporting auditory hallucinations. Which query is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s assessment?

The nurse is planning to teach infant care and preventive measures for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) to a group of new parents. Which information is most important for the nurse to include?

The patient provides three positive responses to items on the CAGE (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) query. What interpretation should the nurse provide to the patient?

A client with gout in the left great toe has received a prescription for prednisone 30 mg by mouth to be administered each day. Which symptom is most important for the client to report to the healthcare provider?