An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?
A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension
A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture
The Correct Answer is A
A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication that involves seizures.
B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.
B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.
C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.
D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.
E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hypotension is not an adverse effect of epinephrine, but rather a sign of anaphylaxis that epinephrine can help to reverse by causing vasoconstriction and increasing blood pressure.
B. Report of tinnitus is not an adverse effect of epinephrine, but rather a symptom of aspirin toxicity, which can occur in some clients who take aspirin for allergic reactions.
C. Report of chest pain is an adverse effect of epinephrine, as it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias, angina, and myocardial ischemia by increasing the heart rate and oxygen demand of the myocardium.
D. Ecchymosis is not an adverse effect of epinephrine, but rather a sign of bleeding disorders or trauma that can cause bruising under the skin.
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