An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?

A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension

A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole

A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding

A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication that involves seizures.

B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Explanation

Cardiovascular abnormalities are a serious risk in clients with bulimia nervosa due to electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia, which can lead to arrhythmias, weakened heart muscles, and potential heart failure. Hyponatremia (low sodium levels) can occur due to excessive vomiting, which leads to the loss of fluids and electrolytes, including sodium. Incorrect responses: Group 1: Hypoglycemia: Bulimia nervosa primarily causes electrolyte imbalances and acid-base disturbances due to vomiting, not significant alterations in blood sugar levels. Metabolic Acidosis: Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, causing metabolic alkalosis. Hypotension: Hypotension could occur if the client experiences significant dehydration from vomiting. Hypotension would be a consequence of severe dehydration rather than a primary risk at this stage. Hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with bulimia nervosa or vomiting. It would be more relevant in conditions like diabetes. Group 2: Hyperkalemia: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is unlikely in bulimia nervosa, where frequent vomiting usually leads to hypokalemia due to the loss of potassium in gastric secretions. Metabolic Acidosis: As mentioned before, vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, because of the loss of hydrochloric acid. Hypochloremia: Hypochloremia (low chloride levels) can occur with vomiting due to the loss of stomach acid, which contains chloride. While it is a possible outcome, metabolic alkalosis better captures the overall acid-base disturbance in the client.

A. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care B. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in a Fowler's position C. Praise the UAP for doing oral hygiene but encourage family participation D. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Option A is incorrect because enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care does not address the immediate problem or correct the error.

Option B-This would be inappropriate for oral care in an unconscious client as it increases the risk of aspiration.The side-lying position is safer for oral hygiene in unconscious clients.

Option C:While encouraging family participation can be beneficial, it is not the most immediate concern in this situation. The priority is ensuring safe and effective care, which the UAP is providing correctly.

Option D:The flat side-lying position is appropriate for an unconscious client during oral hygiene care. This position helps to prevent aspiration by allowing any secretions or fluids to drain out of the mouth rather than down the throat, which could happen if the client were in a Fowler's position. The presence of the emesis basin near the chin also indicates that the UAP is prepared to catch any fluids, further reducing the risk of aspiration

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An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has bulimia nervosa. Exhibits The client is at risk for developing dropdown and dropdown

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Explanation

The practical nurse (PN) observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a ﬂat side-lying position with an emesis basin on the bedside table near the chin. Which action should the PN take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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