An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?
A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension
A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture
The Correct Answer is A
A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication that involves seizures.
B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Obesity is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. In fact, obesity may have a protective effect on bone density due to increased mechanical loading and higher levels of estrogen in adipose tissue.
B. Acromegaly is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone, which leads to increased bone formation and remodeling.
C. Estrogen replacement therapy is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Estrogen replacement therapy can help prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in postmenopausal women with low estrogen levels.
D. Sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor for osteoporosis. Sedentary lifestyle reduces physical activity and muscle strength, which decreases bone stimulation and increases bone resorption.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. A hemoglobin level of 14.9 g/dL indicates that the client has an adequate amount of oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, which is the goal of blood transfusion therapy.
B. Incorrect. A WBC count of 12,000/mm3 is slightly elevated and may indicate an infection or inflammation, which are not related to blood transfusion therapy.
C. Incorrect. A potassium level of 48 mEq/L is dangerously high and may cause cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. This is not an expected outcome of blood transfusion therapy and may indicate hemolysis or renal impairment.
D. Incorrect. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not reflect the effectiveness of blood transfusion therapy.
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