An adult patient visits the clinic expressing concern about a lump that appeared on their neck about a week ago.
Upon examination, the nurse finds a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node without any overlying tissue inflammation.
What could these findings indicate?
Malignancy
Bacterial infection
Viral infection
Lymphangitis .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node without overlying tissue inflammation could indicate malignancy. Lymph nodes may become enlarged or hard due to the presence of cancer cells.
Choice B rationale
While bacterial infections can cause lymph node enlargement, they typically also cause tenderness and overlying skin changes, such as redness or warmth.
Choice C rationale
Viral infections can cause generalized lymph node enlargement, but the nodes are usually tender and not hard.
Choice D rationale
Lymphangitis, or inflammation of the lymphatic channels, typically presents with red streaks on the skin, fever, and tenderness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining an analgesic prescription might help to alleviate the client’s joint pain, it is not the first intervention that should be implemented. The client’s vital signs indicate that they are in a state of shock, which is a medical emergency.
Choice B rationale
Infusing an intravenous fluid bolus is often the first step in treating shock. The client’s low blood pressure and high heart rate suggest that they may be experiencing hypovolemic shock, which can be caused by a severe fluid loss. Administering fluids can help to increase blood volume and improve blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Administering a PRN oral antipyretic would not address the client’s immediate need. The client’s high temperature is a concern, but the low blood pressure and high heart rate are more immediate concerns.
Choice D rationale
Covering the client with a cooling blanket would address the client’s high temperature, but it would not address the more immediate concerns of low blood pressure and high heart rate.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.