An adult patient visits the clinic expressing concern about a lump that appeared on their neck about a week ago.
Upon examination, the nurse finds a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node without any overlying tissue inflammation.
What could these findings indicate?
Malignancy
Bacterial infection
Viral infection
Lymphangitis .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node without overlying tissue inflammation could indicate malignancy. Lymph nodes may become enlarged or hard due to the presence of cancer cells.
Choice B rationale
While bacterial infections can cause lymph node enlargement, they typically also cause tenderness and overlying skin changes, such as redness or warmth.
Choice C rationale
Viral infections can cause generalized lymph node enlargement, but the nodes are usually tender and not hard.
Choice D rationale
Lymphangitis, or inflammation of the lymphatic channels, typically presents with red streaks on the skin, fever, and tenderness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mixing the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not the appropriate method for administering the medication. This would dilute the dextrose, reducing its concentration and potentially making it less effective.
Choice B rationale
Diluting the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution is not the appropriate method for administering the medication. This would significantly dilute the dextrose, reducing its concentration and potentially making it less effective.
Choice C rationale
Requesting the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is not the appropriate method for administering the medication. While dextrose is often a component of TPN solutions, in this case, the patient requires a concentrated dose of dextrose to treat insulin shock.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct answer. Administering the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the appropriate method for administering the medication. This allows for the rapid administration of a concentrated dose of glucose, which is necessary to quickly raise the patient’s blood glucose level in the case of insulin shock.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining an analgesic prescription might help to alleviate the patient’s joint pain, it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
Choice B rationale
Infusing an intravenous fluid bolus is the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. This can help to increase the patient’s blood pressure, which is dangerously low.
Choice C rationale
Administering a PRN oral antipyretic could help to reduce the patient’s fever, but it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
Choice D rationale
Covering the patient with a cooling blanket could help to reduce the patient’s fever, but it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
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