The nurse is about to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a patient with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this class of medication?

It reduces the amount of HCl secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach.

It destroys the microorganisms causing inflammation in the stomach.

It neutralizes hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach.

It inhibits the action of acetylcholine by blocking parasympathetic nerve endings.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Histamine H2-receptor antagonists, also known as H2 blockers, are medications that help reduce the production of gastric acid. They achieve this by blocking H2 receptors in the parietal cells of the stomach, which are responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid (HCl)12. This reduction in acid secretion can help treat conditions such as peptic ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, which are all conditions that can be exacerbated by excessive stomach acid.
Choice B rationale
While H2 blockers do help manage the symptoms of peptic ulcer disease, they do not directly destroy the microorganisms causing inflammation in the stomach. The primary cause of peptic ulcers is a bacterium called Helicobacter pylori, and the treatment for an H. pylori infection typically involves a combination of antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors, not H2 blockers.
Choice C rationale
H2 blockers do not neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach. Instead, they work by reducing the amount of acid produced by the stomach. Antacids, not H2 blockers, are the class of drugs that work by neutralizing stomach acid.
Choice D rationale
H2 blockers do not inhibit the action of acetylcholine by blocking parasympathetic nerve endings. Anticholinergic medications are the ones that work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that transmits signals in the nervous system.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While obtaining a serum drug screen might be helpful in confirming the presence of benzodiazepines or other substances, it is not the most immediate concern in a client experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in managing withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines.
Choice C rationale
Seizure precautions should be initiated as withdrawal from benzodiazepines can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. Therefore, ensuring the safety of the client by initiating seizure precautions is the best initial nursing action.
Choice D rationale

While education is an important part of nursing care, in this situation, the client’s immediate physical needs take precedence.

A. Test the fluid on the dressing for glucose. B. Change the dressing using a compression bandage. C. Mark the drainage area with a pen and continue to monitor. D. Document the findings in the electronic medical record.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Testing the fluid on the dressing for glucose is the immediate course of action when a nurse notices clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a patient who has just returned from lumbar spinal surgery. Clear fluid could be cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which contains glucose. If the fluid is positive for glucose, it could indicate a CSF leak, which requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Changing the dressing using a compression bandage is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice C rationale
Marking the drainage area with a pen and continuing to monitor is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice D rationale
Documenting the findings in the electronic medical record is important, but it is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.

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The nurse is about to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a patient with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this class of medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal from the benzodiazepine alprazolam. What is the best initial nursing action?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse notices clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a patient who has just returned from lumbar spinal surgery. What should be the nurse’s immediate course of action?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy express that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?

The client is a 26-year-old female who fell from an apartment balcony. She was transported to the hospital via ambulance. The client enters the emergency room on a stretcher and is met in the trauma bay by the nurse. What two actions should the nurse take first during the primary survey?

A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with acute gastritis caused by drinking contaminated water. The nurse should emphasize the need to report the onset of which problem?

What is the most crucial nursing intervention to include in the care plan for a patient who is 12 hours post- thyroidectomy?

A 10-year-old child with pneumonia is receiving oxygen at 5 L/minute via a nasal cannula. When planning care for this child, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse keep in mind?