An adolescent experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis reports right knee pain. Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Applying a warm soak to the knee
Administering Acetaminophen
Apply a compression wrap to the right leg
Decreasing the amount of intravenous fluids
The Correct Answer is B
A. Applying a warm soak to the knee: Heat application is generally not recommended during a vaso-occlusive crisis because it can worsen inflammation and pain.
B. Administering Acetaminophen.
Vaso-occlusive crises are a common complication of sickle cell disease, and they can lead to severe pain. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an appropriate choice for pain management in this situation. It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help alleviate pain.Pain control is the priority in these situations.
C. Compression wraps can potentially exacerbate ischemia and increase the risk of complications.
D. Adequate hydration is essential during a crisis to prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Reducing fluids could exacerbate the condition
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Appropriate dose of aspirin and rest: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that can worsen bleeding in individuals with hemophilia. It should be avoided. Rest alone is not sufficient in this situation.
B. Immobilization of the leg and a dose of ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding. Immobilizing the leg may help prevent further injury, but it does not address the underlying bleeding issue or provide the necessary clotting factor.
C. Heating pad and administration of factor VIII concentrate: While the administration of factor VIII concentrate is appropriate, the use of a heating pad is not advisable, as it can potentially worsen bleeding by dilating blood vessels in the area.
D. Pressure on the site and administration of the required clotting factor.
Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder in which the blood doesn't clot properly. When a hemophilic child has a significant bruise or bleeding, it is crucial to administer the specific clotting factor that they are deficient in (Factor VIII or IX) to stop the bleeding. Applying pressure to the site can also help control bleeding.
In summary, option D is the priority because it directly addresses the bleeding issue in the child with hemophilia by applying pressure to the site and administering the necessary clotting factor. This is crucial in preventing further bleeding and complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Positive Western blot test: A positive Western blot test confirms HIV infection but doesn't provide information about the current immune status or progression of the disease.
B. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm³.
The CD4-T-cell count is a crucial indicator of a person's immune system function, and it's a primary marker used to monitor the progression of HIV infection. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm³ is significantly below the normal range (which is typically higher), indicating immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Maintaining and improving immune function is a top priority in the care of clients with HIV.
C. Platelets 150,000/mm³: Platelet counts are important, but they are not the primary indicator for assessing the progression of HIV.
D. WBC 5.000/mm³: The white blood cell count (WBC) is important for assessing overall immune function, but it doesn't provide the same specific information about the immune system status as the CD4-T-cell count.
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