An adolescent experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis reports right knee pain. Which is the most appropriate intervention?

Applying a warm soak to the knee

Administering Acetaminophen

Apply a compression wrap to the right leg

Decreasing the amount of intravenous fluids

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Applying a warm soak to the knee: Heat application is generally not recommended during a vaso-occlusive crisis because it can worsen inflammation and pain.

B. Administering Acetaminophen.

Vaso-occlusive crises are a common complication of sickle cell disease, and they can lead to severe pain. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an appropriate choice for pain management in this situation. It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help alleviate pain.Pain control is the priority in these situations.

C. Compression wraps can potentially exacerbate ischemia and increase the risk of complications.

D. Adequate hydration is essential during a crisis to prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Reducing fluids could exacerbate the condition

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

In transposition of the great vessels (TGV), the aorta and the pulmonary artery are switched, causing oxygen-rich blood to be pumped back to the lungs and oxygen-poor blood to be pumped out to the body. The ductus arteriosus, a fetal blood vessel that normally closes shortly after birth, allows blood to mix between the two circulations.

Prostaglandin E1 is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open, allowing for a controlled mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which can improve oxygen delivery to the body in cases of TGV. This helps maintain oxygenation until corrective surgical interventions can be performed.

The other options, A (decrease pulmonary congestion), B (stimulate the production of red blood cells), and D (increase blood flow to the system), do not accurately describe the primary purpose of Prostaglandin E1 in the context of TGV. The main goal is to maintain a pathway for oxygenated blood to mix with deoxygenated blood to improve oxygen delivery to the body.

A. Increased pulse rate B. Increased blood pressure C. Warm Skin D. Cyanosis of the nail beds

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Increased pulse rate.

Iron deficiency anemia can lead to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. As a compensatory mechanism, the heart may pump faster to deliver more oxygen to tissues. This can result in an increased pulse rate. Children with iron deficiency anemia may also experience weakness, fatigue, and pallor.

B. Increased blood pressure is not a common symptom of iron deficiency anemia. In fact, iron deficiency anemia can often lead to lower blood pressure due to the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

C. Warm skin is not a typical symptom of iron deficiency anemia. Skin temperature may not be directly affected by this condition.

D. Cyanosis of the nail beds is not a symptom of iron deficiency anemia. Cyanosis refers to bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to reduced oxygen levels in the blood, which is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Iron deficiency anemia primarily affects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood but does not lead to cyanosis.

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An adolescent experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis reports right knee pain. Which is the most appropriate intervention?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse explains that the medication Prostaglandin E1 is being given to their child with transposition of the great vessels to:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 3-year-old child with mild iron deficiency anemia is seen by a nurse in the clinic. In addition to weakness and fatigue, what should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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