After administering furosemide 20 mg PO to a client diagnosed with hypertension and peripheral edema, which finding would best indicate that the therapeutic effect of the medication has been achieved?
Blood pressure remains stable at 130/86 mmHg.
Lungs are clear to auscultation.
Serum potassium has decreased from 4.0 to 3.5 mEq/L.
Urine output increases from 30 mL per hour to 100 mL per hour.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason
While maintaining a stable blood pressure is important for a client with hypertension, furosemide is primarily a diuretic, and its therapeutic effect is to reduce fluid overload, not directly to stabilize blood pressure. Therefore, this finding alone does not best indicate the therapeutic effect of furosemide.
Choice B Reason
Clear lungs upon auscultation suggest an improvement in pulmonary edema, which can be associated with fluid overload in conditions such as heart failure. However, for a client with peripheral edema, the primary therapeutic goal of furosemide is to reduce the excess fluid in the extremities, not just the lungs.
Choice C Reason
A decrease in serum potassium is a known side effect of furosemide due to its action on the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of potassium. While it's important to monitor for hypokalemia, a decrease in potassium does not directly indicate the therapeutic effect of reducing edema.
Choice D Reason
An increase in urine output from 30 mL per hour to 100 mL per hour is a direct indication that furosemide is achieving its therapeutic effect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urine production to help the body eliminate excess fluid, thereby reducing edema associated with conditions like hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Switching to heparin is not the standard response for a high INR. Heparin may be used in conjunction with warfarin when starting anticoagulation therapy, but it is not typically used as a substitute in response to an elevated INR.
Choice B Reason:
Giving the dose as prescribed would not be appropriate when the INR is significantly above the therapeutic range. Continuing the same dose could increase the risk of bleeding complications.
Choice C Reason:
Increasing the dose would be contraindicated as the INR is already too high. Increasing the warfarin dose would further elevate the INR and increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice D Reason:
Holding the dose is the correct action when the INR is significantly above the therapeutic range, which is generally between 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications. The healthcare provider should be notified, and the warfarin dose should be held until the INR returns to the therapeutic range. Vitamin K may also be administered to help lower the INR more quickly if necessary.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Monitoring for hypoglycemia at 1200 is not optimal because it is well past the peak action time of insulin aspart, which occurs approximately 45–90 minutes after administration. By noon, the insulin's effects are waning, and the risk of hypoglycemia is lower compared to the peak action period.
Choice B Reason
Monitoring at 1000 might still catch the tail end of the peak action time, but it is not the most likely time for hypoglycemia to occur. The nurse could miss the initial signs of hypoglycemia if monitoring starts two hours after administration.
Choice C Reason
0900 is the most appropriate time for the nurse to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin aspart has a rapid onset of action, peaking in about 45–90 minutes, and the effects last for 3–5 hours. Monitoring one hour after administration aligns with the start of the peak action time, when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur.
Choice D Reason
Monitoring at 1100 is less ideal because it is nearing the end of the peak action period. While there is still a risk for hypoglycemia, the highest risk would have been earlier, closer to the peak action time.
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