During an assessment of an anxious client diagnosed with right lower lobe pneumonia, the nurse notes a new onset change in mental status and tachypnea. The latest vital signs for the client are T: 98.4 F; HR: 108; RR: 28; BP: 144/90; Pulse ox: 88%. What is the priority nursing action?
Place the client on 2L via nasal cannula.
Obtain a blood glucose.
Call the physician for an order for a stat arterial blood gas to be drawn.
Request an order for lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice a reason:
Placing the client on 2L via nasal cannula is a common intervention for hypoxemia, but with the client's pulse oximetry at 88%, which is below the normal range of 95-100%, and the presence of tachypnea, a more immediate assessment of the client's respiratory status is warranted. Oxygen therapy should be guided by the results of arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis to tailor the treatment to the client's specific needs.
Choice b reason:
Obtaining a blood glucose level is not the most immediate concern in the context of altered mental status and respiratory distress. While it is important to rule out hypoglycemia as a cause of altered mental status, the primary concern indicated by the vital signs is the client's respiratory condition.
Choice c reason:
Calling the physician for an order for a stat arterial blood gas is the most appropriate action. The ABG will provide detailed information about the client's oxygenation, carbon dioxide levels, and acid-base balance. This is crucial for a client with a new onset change in mental status and tachypnea, as it can indicate respiratory failure or other serious complications of pneumonia.
Choice d reason:
Requesting an order for lorazepam is not appropriate given the client's current respiratory status. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, can depress the central nervous system and respiratory drive, potentially worsening the client's hypoxemia and respiratory effort.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason
While hypertension can contribute to the development of PAD, it does not directly cause fats to deposit in the arteries. Hypertension can damage the arterial walls, making them more susceptible to atherosclerosis, but it is not the primary mechanism of PAD development.
Choice B Reason
Excess fats in the diet can contribute to atherosclerosis, which is the accumulation of plaques in the arterial walls. However, the fats do not simply get stored; they combine with other substances, including calcium and inflammatory cells, to form plaques that can restrict blood flow.
Choice C Reason
This statement is the most accurate. PAD is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaques formed by fats, cholesterol, calcium, and other substances in the blood. These plaques can harden and narrow the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. The process can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, diabetes, and high cholesterol.
Arterial spasms can occur, but they are not the typical cause of chronic PAD. Spasms are more often associated with conditions like Raynaud's phenomenon or can be a response to stress or cold temperatures. PAD is usually a result of progressive atherosclerosis rather than intermittent spasms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A blood pressure of 98/60, while on the lower side, is not necessarily alarming post-surgery unless the patient shows symptoms of hypotension or if there is a significant drop from the patient's baseline blood pressure. It is important to monitor trends in blood pressure readings rather than a single isolated measurement.
Choice B Reason:
A urine output of 40 mL/hour can be considered within normal limits post-surgery, as the expected urine output is at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr. However, it should be monitored closely to ensure that it does not decrease further, which could indicate renal complications.
Choice C Reason:
Pain rated as 5 on a 0-10 scale indicates moderate pain, which is expected post-surgery. Pain management should be continued as prescribed, and the patient should be reassessed regularly to ensure that the pain does not escalate.
Choice D Reason:
The absence of a popliteal pulse is a critical finding that must be reported immediately. The popliteal artery provides blood flow to the lower leg, and its absence could indicate graft occlusion or other serious circulatory issues, which could lead to limb-threatening complications if not addressed promptly.
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