A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis who suddenly complains of severe chest pain, shortness of breath, and is extremely anxious. The nurse suspects that the client may have developed a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram and call a rapid response.
Elevate the head of the bed and apply 2 liters of nasal oxygen.
Instruct the client to remain calm and administer lorazepam.
Increase the intravenous rate from 80 mL to 100 mL/hr.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram and calling a rapid response team are important steps when a pulmonary embolism is suspected. However, these actions are not the immediate first-line interventions. The priority is to address the client's oxygenation needs to prevent further hypoxemia and potential cardiac arrest.
Choice B reason:
Elevating the head of the bed and applying 2 liters of nasal oxygen is the most appropriate initial intervention. This position helps improve the expansion of the lungs and oxygenation, while the supplemental oxygen can help alleviate hypoxemia, which is critical in the management of a pulmonary embolism.
Choice C reason:
While ensuring the client remains calm is beneficial, administering lorazepam is not the first-line treatment for a suspected pulmonary embolism. Lorazepam may be used for its anxiolytic effects, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening issues of oxygenation and potential hemodynamic instability.
Choice D reason:
Increasing the intravenous rate may be considered to maintain adequate hydration and venous return, but it is not the first intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism. The priority is to stabilize the client's respiratory status and oxygenation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of severe preeclampsia primarily for seizure prophylaxis. One of the key side effects of magnesium sulfate is its impact on neuromuscular transmission, leading to diminished deep-tendon reflexes as serum magnesium levels rise. The therapeutic range for anticonvulsant prophylaxis is typically between 5-8 mg/dL. Reflexes may begin to diminish when serum levels reach 8-12 mg/dL, indicating potential magnesium toxicity. Therefore, diminished reflexes are a warning sign to reassess the infusion rate and possibly reduce or discontinue the medication.
Choice B reason:
A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute falls within the normal adult range and suggests that the client's respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the magnesium sulfate infusion. Respiratory rate is a critical parameter to monitor during magnesium sulfate therapy, as respiratory depression is a serious side effect of magnesium toxicity. Maintaining a normal respiratory rate indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion at the current rate.
Choice C reason:
While a urine output of 50 mL/hr is on the lower end of the normal range, it is still considered adequate for most adults. In the setting of magnesium sulfate therapy for severe preeclampsia, maintaining adequate urine output is essential for ensuring that the kidneys can excrete the magnesium to prevent accumulation and toxicity. If urine output decreases significantly, it may necessitate reevaluation of the infusion rate or additional interventions to support renal function.
Choice D reason:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is slightly bradycardic but may not be clinically significant if the client is asymptomatic. However, magnesium has a direct effect on cardiac function, and high levels can lead to bradycardia and other cardiac conduction abnormalities. It is important to monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm during magnesium sulfate therapy to detect any early signs of cardiac involvement due to magnesium toxicity.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Cyanosis, or a bluish discoloration of the skin, particularly in the nail beds, is a sign of inadequate oxygenation and would not indicate successful intervention. The absence of cyanosis would be a positive outcome, reflecting improved oxygen saturation.
Choice B reason:
Lungs clear to auscultation would indicate that air is moving through all regions of the lungs without obstruction from fluid or mucus, which is a sign of recovery from pneumonia. This finding suggests that the interventions aimed at improving gas exchange, such as positioning, deep breathing exercises, and suctioning if needed, have been effective.
Choice C reason: The inability to speak in full sentences often indicates respiratory distress and would not be a sign of successful nursing intervention. An improvement would be the client's ability to speak in full sentences without difficulty, reflecting better lung function and gas exchange.
Choice D reason:
Pulse oximetry readings between 94-96% on room air are within normal limits and indicate adequate oxygen saturation and gas exchange. This is a clear sign that the client's respiratory status has improved, and the interventions for Impaired Gas Exchange have been successful.
Choice E reason:
Bronchovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds heard over the major bronchi and are typically moderate in pitch and intensity. However, they are not specifically indicative of successful intervention for Impaired Gas Exchange. The absence of abnormal sounds such as crackles or wheezes would be more relevant.
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