The nurse is preparing to hang the client's next bag of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and observes fat globules rising to the top of the solution. What action should the nurse take?

Run the bag under warm water to melt the globules.

Call the pharmacy to get a new bag of TPN.

Do nothing, as fat globules are expected to rise to the top of the TPN solution.

Roll the bag of solution gently to redistribute the fat.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason
Running the bag under warm water to melt the globules is not recommended. Applying heat could compromise the sterility and integrity of the solution. TPN solutions are carefully balanced and sterile, and any manipulation involving temperature changes could lead to contamination or nutrient degradation.

Choice B Reason
Observing fat globules at the top of the TPN solution is a sign that the emulsion may be compromised. The nurse should not administer this TPN solution and should call the pharmacy for a replacement. TPN solutions should be homogenous with no visible separation or fat globules to ensure the patient receives the correct nutrition and to prevent complications.

Choice C Reason
Doing nothing is not an appropriate action. Fat globules indicate that the solution has separated, which can lead to an unstable emulsion and potential harm if infused. The nurse's responsibility is to ensure the safety and efficacy of the treatment, which includes verifying that TPN solutions are properly mixed.

Choice D Reason
Rolling the bag gently to redistribute the fat is not a safe practice. While gentle agitation can be used for some medications, it is not appropriate for TPN solutions with visible fat globules. This could further destabilize the emulsion and does not address the underlying issue of separation.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice a reason:
Placing the client on 2L via nasal cannula is a common intervention for hypoxemia, but with the client's pulse oximetry at 88%, which is below the normal range of 95-100%, and the presence of tachypnea, a more immediate assessment of the client's respiratory status is warranted. Oxygen therapy should be guided by the results of arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis to tailor the treatment to the client's specific needs.

Choice b reason:
Obtaining a blood glucose level is not the most immediate concern in the context of altered mental status and respiratory distress. While it is important to rule out hypoglycemia as a cause of altered mental status, the primary concern indicated by the vital signs is the client's respiratory condition.

Choice c reason:
Calling the physician for an order for a stat arterial blood gas is the most appropriate action. The ABG will provide detailed information about the client's oxygenation, carbon dioxide levels, and acid-base balance. This is crucial for a client with a new onset change in mental status and tachypnea, as it can indicate respiratory failure or other serious complications of pneumonia.

Choice d reason:
Requesting an order for lorazepam is not appropriate given the client's current respiratory status. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, can depress the central nervous system and respiratory drive, potentially worsening the client's hypoxemia and respiratory effort.

A. Respiratory rate of 24/min. B. Weak, nonproductive cough. C. Pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 90%. D. Shortness of breath with activity.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
A respiratory rate of 24/min is slightly elevated, which can be expected in a client with pneumonia due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake and carbon dioxide elimination. However, this rate does not directly indicate ineffective airway clearance.

Choice B reason:
A weak, nonproductive cough is a key indicator of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, the presence of secretions in the airways is common, and an effective cough is necessary to clear these secretions. A weak cough that does not produce sputum suggests that the client is unable to clear their airways effectively, which can lead to impaired gas exchange and worsening of symptoms.

Choice C reason:
Pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 90% indicates that the client's oxygen saturation is below the normal range, which is typically between 95-100% for healthy individuals. While this finding is concerning and warrants intervention, it is a result of ineffective airway clearance rather than a direct indicator of it.

Choice D reason:
Shortness of breath with activity is common in clients with pneumonia and can result from various factors, including impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, and increased work of breathing. While it may be associated with ineffective airway clearance, it is not as specific as a weak, nonproductive cough for indicating this particular problem.

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The nurse is preparing to hang the client's next bag of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and observes fat globules rising to the top of the solution. What action should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During an assessment of an anxious client diagnosed with right lower lobe pneumonia, the nurse notes a new onset change in mental status and tachypnea. The latest vital signs for the client are T: 98.4 F; HR: 108; RR: 28; BP: 144/90; Pulse ox: 88%. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse formulates the problem of ineffective airway clearance for a client who has pneumonia. Which assessment data best supports this problem?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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