A young mother confides in the nurse that her husband does not want her to give su much attention to their new baby for fear that the child will become spoiled. The nurse's best response would be

"Your husband is correct. Constant attention makes an infant irritable and spoiled"

"Your husband is concerned for you as giving so much attention to an infant significantly depletes your energy

Your husband is not correct. Interaction helps an infant establish trust

"Your husband knows what he is talking about. A lot of attention causes a child to become self-centered

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "Your husband is correct. Constant attention makes an infant irritable and spoiled." This statement is not accurate. Infants need responsive caregiving and interaction with their caregivers for healthy emotional development. Providing attention to meet the baby's needs is not synonymous with spoiling.

B. "Your husband is concerned for you as giving so much attention to an infant significantly depletes your energy." While it's true that caring for a baby can be physically demanding and exhausting for parents, this response doesn't address the husband's concern and doesn't provide guidance on infant care.

C. "Your husband is not correct. Interaction helps an infant establish trust."

Option C provides the most appropriate response because it supports the importance of interaction and bonding with the infant, especially during the early stages of development. Establishing trust and attachment with the baby is crucial for their emotional and psychological well-being. Responsive caregiving and interaction with the infant is not associated with spoiling but rather with healthy child development.

D. "Your husband knows what he is talking about. A lot of attention causes a child to become self-centered." This response is not supported by current child development research. Proper attention and interaction with an infant promote healthy attachment and emotional development rather than causing self-centeredness.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Trientine: Trientine is a medication used to treat copper overload in conditions like Wilson's disease. It is not indicated for iron overdose or toxicity.

B. Dimercaprol: Dimercaprol, also known as BAL (British Anti-Lewisite), is a chelating agent used to treat heavy metal poisoning but is not primarily used for iron overload or toxicity.

C. Ferrous gluconate: Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplement used to treat iron-deficiency anemia by providing additional iron to the body. It is not appropriate for treating iron overdose, as it would worsen the situation.

D. Deferoxamine.

Iron overdose, also known as iron toxicity, can lead to serious complications, including cardiac dysrhythmias. Deferoxamine is a chelating agent used to remove excess iron from the body in cases of iron overload or toxicity, such as in patients with conditions like sickle cell anemia who require frequent blood transfusions. It binds to excess iron and helps excrete it from the body, reducing the risk of iron-related complications, including cardiac issues.

A. Bone marrow transplantation B. Exchange transfusion C. Liver transplantation D. Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Bone marrow transplantation.

Severe aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by a significant reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow. The primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia is a bone marrow transplantation, also known as a stem cell transplant. This procedure involves replacing the patient's dysfunctional bone marrow with healthy bone marrow or stem cells from a suitable donor. This is done to restore normal blood cell production.

Option B (Exchange transfusion) is not the primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia but may be used in certain cases to manage complications or specific symptoms.

Option C (Liver transplantation) is not a treatment for severe aplastic anemia, as this condition primarily affects the bone marrow and blood cell production.

Option D (Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin) is not the primary treatment for severe aplastic anemia but may be used in some cases to manage complications, such as infections. However, it does not address the underlying cause of the disease, which is the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells.

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A young mother confides in the nurse that her husband does not want her to give su much attention to their new baby for fear that the child will become spoiled. The nurse's best response would be

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse observes that a client with sickle cell anemia and on a blood transfusion regimen has cardiac dysrhythmias due to iron overdose toxicity. Which medication is most beneficial to this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which is the treatment of choice for severe aplastic anemia?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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