A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy.
She has been reporting nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis.
The nurse suspects that.
this is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen.
this is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign.
the woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner.
the woman has been using cocaine intranasally.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis (nosebleeds) are common symptoms during pregnancy due to elevated levels of estrogen. Increased estrogen causes mucosal blood vessels to become engorged and more fragile, leading to nasal congestion and occasional nosebleeds. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy and not necessarily a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
While cardiovascular changes are common in pregnancy, nosebleeds alone are not indicative of abnormal cardiovascular changes unless they are accompanied by other symptoms. The given scenario does not provide enough information to support this choice.
Choice C rationale:
There is no evidence provided to suggest domestic violence (Choice C) as the cause of the woman's symptoms. Additionally, this choice lacks a physiological basis for the symptoms described.
Choice D rationale:
Intranasal cocaine use (Choice D) can indeed cause nasal congestion and frequent nosebleeds. However, the scenario does not provide any information to support this choice, and assuming drug use without evidence is not appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Afterbirth hemorrhage, or postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), is a significant concern after childbirth. One of the common causes is retained placental fragments. When placental tissue is not completely expelled after delivery, it can lead to continuous bleeding. This condition requires prompt medical intervention, often through uterine exploration and removal of the retained tissue.
Choice B rationale:
Unrepaired vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but they are usually identified and repaired immediately after delivery. In this case, the woman gave birth 4 hours ago, so unrepaired lacerations would have been addressed during the delivery process.
Choice C rationale:
Uterine atony, which is the lack of normal uterine muscle tone, can cause postpartum hemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the woman was given Pitocin, which is an oxytocic medication used to prevent or treat uterine atony by inducing uterine contractions. Therefore, uterine atony is less likely to be the cause in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, can cause fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling discharge. While it can lead to complications, it is not the most likely cause of significant bleeding in this situation.
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