A pregnant woman at 37 weeks’ gestation has had ruptured membranes for 38 hours. A cesarean is performed for failure to progress. FHR baseline before birth was 180 BPM with marked variability. At birth, the newborn had Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at one and five minutes and is now noted to be pale and tachypneic. Based on the maternal history, what is the most likely cause of this newborn’s distress?
Hypoxia.
Respiratory distress syndrome.
Sepsis.
Phrenic nerve injury.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Hypoxia may contribute to tachypnea and distress, but it is unlikely the primary cause, as baseline fetal heart rate of 180 BPM indicates infection-related stress rather than isolated oxygen deprivation.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory distress syndrome predominantly affects preterm infants due to surfactant deficiency. At 37 weeks’ gestation, surfactant levels should be adequate, making this an unlikely cause of the newborn’s tachypnea and pallor.
Choice C rationale
Prolonged rupture of membranes increases the risk of neonatal sepsis. Signs such as tachypnea, pallor, and elevated fetal heart rate with marked variability suggest systemic infection requiring immediate evaluation and treatment.
Choice D rationale
Phrenic nerve injury typically causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to asymmetric chest movement and respiratory distress. However, it does not explain the systemic signs like pallor or elevated heart rate, making it an unlikely cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum depression with psychotic features may lead to suicidal ideation or infanticidal tendencies due to delusions or hallucinations. Ensuring safety is critical to prevent harm to both mother and infant.
Choice B rationale
Anger outbursts, though concerning, do not pose immediate threats like harm to self or infant. Addressing this behavior is secondary to prioritizing safety in severe postpartum psychosis cases.
Choice C rationale
Neglecting hygiene reflects depressive symptoms but does not indicate psychosis severity or imminent danger. Primary focus remains on managing safety risks to the mother and infant.
Choice D rationale
Losing trust in her husband is relevant to interpersonal stress but does not constitute a primary care concern. The immediate threat of harm takes precedence over marital dynamics.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Infection of the uterus typically presents with fever, foul-smelling lochia, and uterine tenderness, not bright red vaginal bleeding with a firm fundus. Firm fundus decreases the likelihood of retained products causing infection.
Choice B rationale
Uterine atony causes excessive vaginal bleeding due to the uterus's inability to contract effectively, but it doesn't apply here since the fundus is firm, indicating adequate uterine tone.
Choice C rationale
Perineal hematoma results from blood vessel damage during delivery. It causes a tense, painful mass and vaginal or perineal swelling, not steady, bright red bleeding with a firm fundus.
Choice D rationale
Lacerations of the genital tract result in bright red bleeding despite a firm fundus, as the bleeding originates from tears in the vaginal or perineal tissues rather than uterine atony.
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