When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features, what is the nurse’s primary concern in planning the client’s care?
Harm to herself or her infant.
Displaying outbursts of anger.
Neglecting her hygiene.
Losing trust in her husband.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Postpartum depression with psychotic features may lead to suicidal ideation or infanticidal tendencies due to delusions or hallucinations. Ensuring safety is critical to prevent harm to both mother and infant.
Choice B rationale
Anger outbursts, though concerning, do not pose immediate threats like harm to self or infant. Addressing this behavior is secondary to prioritizing safety in severe postpartum psychosis cases.
Choice C rationale
Neglecting hygiene reflects depressive symptoms but does not indicate psychosis severity or imminent danger. Primary focus remains on managing safety risks to the mother and infant.
Choice D rationale
Losing trust in her husband is relevant to interpersonal stress but does not constitute a primary care concern. The immediate threat of harm takes precedence over marital dynamics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Projectile vomiting is not a typical symptom of diaphragmatic hernia. This condition primarily affects respiratory function due to lung compression by abdominal organs in the chest cavity.
Choice B rationale
High-pitched crying is not a hallmark symptom of diaphragmatic hernia. The condition primarily presents with respiratory distress due to lung underdevelopment and organ displacement.
Choice C rationale
Respiratory distress occurs due to lung compression and underdevelopment caused by abdominal organs herniating into the chest cavity. This is a primary symptom observed in diaphragmatic hernia cases.
Choice D rationale
Fecal incontinence is unrelated to diaphragmatic hernia. The condition primarily impacts respiratory function due to the displacement of abdominal organs into the thoracic cavity.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hemabate (carboprost) is a prostaglandin analog that induces uterine contractions, effectively reducing bleeding. It is often used when first-line agents fail to control postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to delay premature labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It is contraindicated in postpartum hemorrhage as it inhibits uterine contraction, worsening bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions by acting on oxytocin receptors in the myometrium. It is the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage to promote hemostasis through uterine contraction.
Choice D rationale
Methergine (methylergonovine) enhances uterine tone and decreases bleeding by inducing sustained contractions via stimulation of uterine smooth muscle serotonin and alpha-adrenergic receptors.
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