A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg. pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104" F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.

Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl.

Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.

Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. The first intervention should be to administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr to address the immediate concern of hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.

A. While fever control is important, especially in septic shock, administering acetaminophen should not be the first intervention in a patient with severe hypotension and shock. Addressing the low blood pressure and perfusion is a higher priority.

B. Hyperglycemia is common in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. However, in this scenario, the patient's severely low blood pressure and signs of shock take precedence over managing hyperglycemia. Insulin therapy can be initiated later once the patient's hemodynamic status is stabilized.

D. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in septic shock to increase blood pressure and improve perfusion to vital organs. It helps counteract the vasodilation and hypotension characteristic of septic shock.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Elective cardioversion involves the synchronized delivery of a therapeutic electrical shock to the heart to restore normal sinus rhythm in a patient with a tachyarrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by a rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles, and it requires immediate intervention due to the risk of deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation (VF) and cardiac arrest. Therefore, elective cardioversion is not appropriate for treating VT.

B. Defibrillation involves the unsynchronized delivery of a high-energy electrical shock to the heart to terminate life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT). In the case of a conscious patient with pulse-sustaining ventricular tachycardia, immediate defibrillation may not be necessary. However, if the patient deteriorates into pulseless VT or VF, prompt defibrillation is required to restore normal cardiac rhythm and circulation.

C. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a procedure performed in a cardiac catheterization lab to treat certain cardiac arrhythmias by delivering radiofrequency energy to the specific area of the heart responsible for the abnormal rhythm. While radiofrequency catheter ablation may be considered for certain types of sustained ventricular tachycardia that are refractory to medical therapy or deemed to be originating from a specific site in the heart, it is not the immediate intervention for hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia.

D. CPR is an emergency procedure performed on individuals experiencing cardiac arrest or a life- threatening medical emergency. In the case of ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the patient is still perfusing, and CPR is not indicated. However, if the patient deteriorates into pulseless VT or ventricular fibrillation (VF), CPR may be initiated along with immediate defibrillation.

A. Insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter B. Obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan C. Drawing blood for arterial blood gases D. Positioning the patient for a chest x-ray

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter can help in assessing hemodynamic parameters and distinguishing between these two conditions. It provides direct measurement of pulmonary artery pressures, which can be elevated in the case of heart failure.

B. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is used to evaluate ventilation and perfusion in the lungs. While it can help identify areas of ventilation-perfusion mismatch, it may not be the most appropriate initial test for distinguishing between ARDS and pulmonary edema.

C. Drawing blood for arterial blood gases is also a critical step as it helps in assessing the severity of hypoxemia and respiratory failure.

D. A chest x-ray can show the presence of bilateral opacities, which are indicative of ARDS when cardiac failure or fluid overload is not the primary cause. However, transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is often performed to seek evidence of cardiac dysfunction when cardiogenic pulmonary edema cannot be excluded by clinical evaluation, laboratory findings, or imaging.

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A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg. pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104" F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

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