A patient hospitalized for heart failure exacerbation has been receiving 40 mg furosemide IV twice daily. What statement by the client would alert the nurse to a possible toxic effect of this medication?
My stomach is distended, and I haven't had a bowel movement in 3 days
This IV site seems irritated, it's red and painful
Everything has started sounding muffled, I'm having difficulty hearing
I feel like I've done nothing but urinate since I've been here
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because stomach distension and constipation are not common side effects of furosemide. They may be related to other causes, such as diet, fluid intake, or medication interactions. The nurse should assess the client's abdominal status and bowel habits and provide appropriate interventions, such as increasing fiber, fluids, or laxatives.
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect because IV site irritation, redness, and pain are not specific side effects of furosemide. They may be caused by other factors, such as infection, infiltration, or phlebitis. The nurse should inspect the IV site and catheter and change them if needed. The nurse should also monitor the client's vital signs and blood cultures for signs of infection.
Choice C reason: This choice is correct because hearing loss or impairment is a rare but serious side effect of furosemide. It can occur due to damage to the inner ear or the auditory nerve. It may be temporary or permanent, depending on the dose and duration of furosemide therapy. The nurse should stop the infusion of furosemide and notify the provider immediately. The nurse should also assess the client's hearing and balance and provide safety measures.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect because frequent urination is an expected effect of furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that increases the excretion of water and electrolytes through the urine. It helps to reduce fluid overload and edema in clients with heart failure. The nurse should measure and record the client's intake and output and monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch is a common and appropriate dose for chronic pain management. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that delivers a steady amount of medication through the skin over 72 hours.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because meloxicam 15 mg PO daily is a standard and safe dose for treating inflammation and pain caused by arthritis. Meloxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that reduces the production of prostaglandins, which are involved in inflammation.
Choice C reason: This is correct because regular insulin 8 units subcutaneous before meals is a vague and potentially dangerous prescription. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into the cells. The dose of insulin should be individualized based on the client's blood glucose level, carbohydrate intake, and activity level. The nurse should contact the provider for clarification on how to adjust the dose according to the client's needs.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because docusate sodium 200 mg PO at bedtime is a usual and effective dose for preventing constipation. Docusate sodium is a stool softener that works by increasing the amount of water in the stool, making it easier to pass.
Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
Explanation
To calculate the volume of morphine injection that the nurse should administer, we can use the following steps:
Determine the volume to be administered:
We have a concentration of 10 mg/mL.
7.5 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.75 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.75 mL of morphine injection subcutaneously.
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