A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.
The instructor is describing which of the following?

Initial phase of treatment.

Continuation phase of treatment.

Directly observed therapy.

Adherence evaluation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

The initial phase of treatment in tuberculosis management involves the first few weeks of intensive drug therapy when the goal is to reduce the bacterial load and prevent drug resistance. During this phase, the client typically takes multiple medications, but there is no requirement for direct observation by a healthcare provider.

Choice B rationale:

The continuation phase of treatment occurs after the initial phase in tuberculosis management. It focuses on preventing relapse and the complete eradication of the bacteria. During this phase, the client takes fewer medications, but there is no direct observation of medication administration.

Choice C rationale:

Directly observed therapy (DOT) is a strategy used in tuberculosis treatment where a healthcare provider or trained observer directly watches the client take their medications. This is particularly important to ensure adherence and prevent drug resistance. The description in the question aligns with the practice of DOT.

Choice D rationale:

Adherence evaluation refers to assessing how well a client follows their treatment plan, but it doesn't necessarily involve observing medication administration. While adherence evaluation is essential, the scenario described in the question specifically mentions the client demonstrating medication intake in front of a nurse, which corresponds to DOT.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Bloody diarrhea is not typically associated with a fungal superinfection. This symptom is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues and may be related to other causes such as infection or inflammatory bowel disease.

Choice B rationale:

Abdominal cramping is also not a typical sign of a fungal superinfection. It is more likely to be associated with gastrointestinal problems, food intolerances, or other conditions.

Choice D rationale:

Heartburn is not a common sign of a fungal superinfection. It is usually associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or other gastrointestinal issues. Creamy white patches on the throat (Choice C) are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal superinfection. This condition is caused by the overgrowth of Candida albicans and is commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those on immunosuppressive therapy or with HIV. It is important to recognize these white patches as they may require treatment with antifungal medications to prevent further complications.

A. Hepatic impairment. B. Renal impairment. C. Diabetes. D. Hypertension.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Antiviral drugs are metabolized in the liver, and hepatic impairment can affect the metabolism and elimination of these drugs. Therefore, the nurse should administer antiviral therapy cautiously to clients with hepatic impairment to prevent potential drug toxicity. Hepatic impairment can alter the pharmacokinetics of antiviral drugs, leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream.

Choice B rationale:

Renal impairment is not typically a contraindication for antiviral therapy. While some medications may require dose adjustments in patients with renal impairment, it is not a general concern for antiviral drugs. The primary organ responsible for the metabolism of antiviral drugs is the liver.

Choice C rationale:

Diabetes and hypertension are chronic medical conditions that are not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. These conditions do not significantly impact the pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics of antiviral drugs. Therefore, they are not primary factors to consider when administering antiviral therapy.

Choice D rationale:

Hypertension, like diabetes, is not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. Antiviral drugs primarily interact with the liver's metabolic pathways, and hypertension does not have a significant impact on drug metabolism.

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A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.The instructor is describing which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the signs and symptoms of a fungal superinfection with a client.The client demonstrates understanding of the information when he identifies which of the following as suggesting a fungal superinfection?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer antiviral therapy.The nurse integrates knowledge of this therapy, administering the drugs cautiously to clients with which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.
The instructor is describing which of the following?