A nurse on a mental health unit observes a diagnosed schizophrenic patient on antipsychotics having an impaired gait and uncontrollable tremors. The nurse should recognize that which of the following adverse effects may be occurring?
Tardive dyskinesia.
Acute dystonia.
Pseudoparkinsonism.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
Choice A rationale:
Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, often around the mouth, such as lip-smacking, tongue protrusion, and chewing movements. It does not typically present with impaired gait and tremors.
Choice B rationale:
Acute dystonia involves sudden, severe muscle contractions, often affecting the neck, face, and back. Symptoms include twisting movements and abnormal postures, but it does not usually cause impaired gait and tremors.
Choice C rationale:
Pseudoparkinsonism is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, tremors, and postural instability. The impaired gait and uncontrollable tremors observed by the nurse are characteristic signs of pseudoparkinsonism.
Choice D rationale:
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction (e.g., unstable blood pressure, sweating). It does not typically present with impaired gait and tremors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C.
Choice A rationale:
Planning a therapeutic diet is important for overall client care, but it might not be the first priority. The client's significant weight loss and distorted body image require more immediate attention to address potential underlying mental health concerns..
Choice B rationale:
Providing a structured environment is beneficial, but it might not be the first priority in this situation. The client's distorted perception of weight and significant weight loss necessitate more immediate assessment and intervention.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the client's nutritional status is the first priority in this scenario. The client's weight loss of 11 kg (25 lb) over 3 months and belief that she is fat are indicators of a possible eating disorder. Nutritional assessment helps determine the severity of the issue and guides appropriate interventions.
Choice D rationale:
While requesting a mental health consult is important, it is not the first priority. Addressing the client's immediate physical health, which includes assessing her nutritional status and potential risk for complications related to her distorted body image, takes precedence.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Current rehabilitation for opiate addiction is not typically associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is primarily linked to chronic alcohol abuse and thiamine deficiency.
Choice B rationale:
A personal history of alcohol use disorder is directly associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome is caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, which is commonly seen in individuals who have a history of heavy and chronic alcohol consumption.
Choice C rationale:
Undergoing current treatment for HIV is not a typical factor associated with the development of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome's primary cause is thiamine deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse.
Choice D rationale:
Family history of Alzheimer's disease is not a characteristic linked to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. These two conditions have different etiologies and clinical presentations. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine deficiency, while Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder.
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