A nurse on a mental health unit observes a client yelling at another client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
State expectations for the client's behavior.
Request security personnel restrain the client.
Place the client in seclusion.
Debrief staff members about the conflict.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale: By stating expectations for the client’s behavior, the nurse is addressing the immediate situation and setting clear boundaries. This intervention allows the nurse to assertively communicate with the client, reminding them of appropriate behavior and potentially diffusing the situation1.
Choice B rationale: Requesting security personnel to restrain the client should be a last resort, used only when the client poses a significant risk to themselves or others and all other de-escalation techniques have failed. Restraint can be traumatic and has potential physical and psychological risks.
Choice C rationale: Placing the client in seclusion is another measure that should be used sparingly and only when necessary for the safety of the client or others. It’s important to try less restrictive measures first, such as verbal de-escalation techniques or offering a quiet, private space where the client can regain control.
Choice D rationale: Debriefing staff members about the conflict is an important step, but it should not be the first action. The immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all clients and to de-escalate the situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Opioid medications can cause urinary retention by inhibiting the normal function of the bladder and reducing the urge to urinate. This can lead to incomplete emptying of the bladder and increased urine retention. Nurses should monitor clients receiving opioids for signs of urinary retention, such as decreased urine output, distended bladder, or discomfort in the lower abdomen.
Opioids generally cause pupil constriction (miosis) rather than dilation (mydriasis). Dilated pupils may indicate other drug use or neurological issues, but they are not a typical adverse effect of hydromorphone.
Hydromorphone is more likely to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) as an adverse effect rather than hypertension (high blood pressure).
Hydromorphone can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by decreased respiratory rate and depth. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is not a typical adverse effect of hydromorphone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.Sodium restriction is a key component in the management of ascites, as it helps to reduce fluid retention. However, the standard recommendation for sodium intake in ascites management is typically lower than 3 grams per day. The guideline is often around 2 grams or even less to effectively manage ascites. Thus, while the concept is correct, the specific amount in this option is slightly higher than usually recommended.
B.This is not generally recommended for clients with ascites. Lying flat can increase discomfort and pressure on the diaphragm, making breathing more difficult. Instead, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position can help alleviate respiratory distress by reducing pressure on the diaphragm.
C. This is a crucial intervention. Measuring abdominal girth daily provides a reliable way to monitor changes in the size of the abdomen, which reflects changes in the amount of ascitic fluid. It helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and detecting any rapid accumulation of fluid that might require intervention.
D.While protein restriction was traditionally recommended to prevent hepatic encephalopathy, more recent guidelines suggest that moderate protein intake should be maintained unless the client has severe hepatic encephalopathy. Adequate protein intake is necessary to prevent muscle wasting and support liver function, and it should generally be individualized based on the client’s condition.
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