A nurse is teaching the parent of an adolescent who was recently diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD). The parent asks, "Is there a medication that can help my child?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Medication is usually not prescribed to treat oppositional defiant disorder. Let's discuss some behavioral strategies you can use."
There are many medications that will help your child manage aggression and destructiveness. The health care provider will discuss them with you."
"Medication is not used to treat this oppositional defiant disorder because it is behavioral in nature."
"It's a common misconception that there is a medication available to treat every health problem."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Medication is usually not prescribed to treat oppositional defiant disorder. Let's discuss some behavioral strategies you can use." Behavioral interventions are the mainstay of treatment for ODD. Medications are not typically recommended unless there are comorbid conditions like ADHD or aggression that do not respond to behavioral interventions alone.
B. There are many medications that will help your child manage aggression and destructiveness. The health care provider will discuss them with you: This statement is misleading as medications are not first-line for ODD.
C. "Medication is not used to treat this oppositional defiant disorder because it is behavioral in nature.": This is an oversimplification; while primarily behavioral, medications might be considered in certain cases.
D. "It's a common misconception that there is a medication available to treat every health problem.": This statement dismisses the possibility of appropriate medication when needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): SLE is an autoimmune disease but is not directly linked to the pathophysiology of HIT.
B. Placental abruption: Placental abruption is a complication of pregnancy and is not a risk factor for HIT.
C. Heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT): Correct Answer. Heparin therapy itself, especially in the treatment of deep-vein thrombosis, is a significant risk factor for developing HIT due to the exposure to heparin.
D. Warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation: Warfarin is not associated with the development of HIT.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pernicious anemia: Typically involves vitamin B12 deficiency, not associated with heavy menstrual periods.
B. Folic acid deficiency anemia: Presents with similar symptoms but does not typically cause heavy menstrual bleeding.
C. Iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by low hemoglobin and hematocrit due to insufficient iron for red blood cell production. Symptoms of weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual bleeding are classic signs of iron deficiency anemia, which is confirmed by low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
D. Sickle cell anemia: Characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells and is genetic in nature, not related to heavy menstrual bleeding.
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