A nurse is teaching an adult client who has been recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
"When taking leflunomide, expect decreased swelling within 1 week.".
"If acute inflammation is present, apply hot packs directly to the joint for pain relief.".
"Take calcium and vitamin D supplements along with your steroid medication.".
"Make sure your varicella vaccine is up to date.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Leflunomide is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used for rheumatoid arthritis, but it does not typically result in decreased swelling within one week. It usually takes several weeks or even months for its full effect to be observed.
Choice B rationale:
Applying hot packs directly to the joint for pain relief is not recommended for rheumatoid arthritis, as heat can exacerbate inflammation. Cold packs or other anti-inflammatory measures are more appropriate.
Choice C rationale:
Steroid medications, such as prednisone, can lead to bone density loss and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements helps to mitigate this risk.
Choice D rationale:
The Varicella vaccine is not directly related to rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for immune support, but it is not specifically required for rheumatoid arthritis treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A. Diplopia.
Rationale:
A) Diplopia: Diplopia, or double vision, is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of nerves in the brainstem, affecting eye movement coordination. This visual disturbance is frequently seen in MS clients and may worsen during flare-ups.
B) Masklike expression: A masklike expression is more commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease rather than multiple sclerosis. This characteristic facial appearance is due to muscle rigidity, which is not typically a manifestation of MS.
C) Twitching of the face: Facial twitching, or fasciculations, is not typically a primary symptom of multiple sclerosis. While muscle weakness and spasticity are common in MS, twitching is more commonly seen in conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
D) Agitation: Agitation is not a primary symptom of MS. While MS can lead to cognitive changes or mood disturbances, such as depression, severe agitation is more commonly linked with other neurological or psychiatric conditions.
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