A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to decrease the client's risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.).

Wear a protective gown when suctioning the client's airway.

Monitor for oral secretions every 2 hr.

Provide oral care every 2 hr.

Maintain the client in a supine position.

Assess the client daily for readiness of extubation.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C,E

Choice A rationale:

While wearing a protective gown is essential to minimize exposure to bodily fluids and to ensure the nurse's protection, it is not specifically aimed at decreasing the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). The key interventions to prevent VAP focus on maintaining airway hygiene and proper positioning, not just personal protective equipment during suctioning.

Choice B rationale:

Monitoring oral secretions every 2 hours is an important strategy in reducing the risk of VAP. Accumulation of secretions in the mouth and upper airway can promote bacterial growth, increasing the risk of aspiration and infection. By regularly assessing and removing secretions, the nurse can reduce the chances of bacteria being aspirated into the lungs and causing pneumonia.

Choice C rationale:

Oral care every 2 hours is a critical intervention to reduce the risk of VAP. Mechanical ventilation predisposes clients to the growth of bacteria in the oral cavity, and poor oral hygiene increases the risk of oral bacteria being aspirated into the lungs. Regular oral care, including brushing teeth, gums, and the tongue, as well as using antiseptic solutions, helps reduce the microbial load in the mouth and decreases the risk of VAP.

Choice D rationale:

Maintaining a client in a supine position is not recommended for preventing VAP. The best practice is to maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle (semi-Fowler's position) to reduce the risk of aspiration. A supine position increases the likelihood of gastric contents or secretions being aspirated into the lungs, which can lead to VAP.

Choice E rationale:

Assessing the client daily for readiness for extubation is an essential practice in preventing VAP. The longer a patient remains intubated, the higher the risk of developing VAP due to prolonged exposure of the endotracheal tube in the airway. Regular assessment for extubation helps to ensure that the client is appropriately weaned off the ventilator as soon as they are stable, reducing the risk of VAP and other complications associated with prolonged ventilation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Severe headache can be a symptom of a subdural hematoma, but it is not the earliest manifestation of a change in neurological status. Other symptoms may appear before a severe headache, such as an altered level of consciousness.

Choice B rationale:

Bradycardia can occur with a subdural hematoma, especially as intracranial pressure increases. However, it is not the earliest manifestation of a change in neurological status. Changes in heart rate may occur later in the progression of the condition.

Choice C rationale:

Widened pulse pressure can also occur in patients with a subdural hematoma due to increased intracranial pressure. However, it is not the earliest manifestation of a change in neurological status. Other neurological signs would likely appear before changes in pulse pressure are evident.

Choice D rationale:

Change in level of consciousness is the earliest manifestation of a change in neurological status with a subdural hematoma. As intracranial pressure increases, the brain's functioning can be affected, leading to alterations in consciousness, ranging from mild confusion to unconsciousness.

A. A defined area of cool, boggy skin. B. A shallow crater involving the epidermis. C. Reddened area that does not blanch. D. Undermining or tunneling of the skin.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.

Choice B rationale:

A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.

Choice C rationale:

The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.

Choice D rationale:

Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to decrease the client's risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.).

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

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Correct Answer is B

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