A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to irrigate the eyes of a client who received a chemical splash on their face. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Completely irrigate one eye before irrigating the second eye.
Inform the client they will need to blink their eyes rapidly during the irrigation process.
Delay the irrigation process until the type of chemical in the eyes is identified.
Ask the client to count the number of fingers held up by the nurse prior to irrigating their eyes.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Completely irrigating one eye before irrigating the second eye is the correct action to take when a client receives a chemical splash on their face. This approach helps prevent the potential spread of the chemical from one eye to the other. Irrigation should be done immediately to flush out the chemical and minimize its harmful effects.
Choice B rationale:
Informing the client to blink their eyes rapidly during the irrigation process is not recommended. Blinking may exacerbate the dispersion of the chemical and could lead to further damage to the eyes. Instead, the client should keep their eyes open during irrigation.
Choice C rationale:
Delaying the irrigation process until the type of chemical in the eyes is identified is not appropriate. Time is critical in minimizing the impact of the chemical on the eyes. Immediate irrigation is essential, regardless of the type of chemical, to remove the substance from the eyes.
Choice D rationale:
Asking the client to count the number of fingers held up by the nurse before irrigating their eyes is not relevant in this situation. The priority is to initiate immediate irrigation to remove the chemical from the eyes. Assessing the client's visual acuity can be done later in the evaluation process after the eyes have been irrigated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:

The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.
Choice B rationale:
A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.
Choice C rationale:
The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.
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