A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to irrigate the eyes of a client who received a chemical splash on their face. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Completely irrigate one eye before irrigating the second eye.
Inform the client they will need to blink their eyes rapidly during the irrigation process.
Delay the irrigation process until the type of chemical in the eyes is identified.
Ask the client to count the number of fingers held up by the nurse prior to irrigating their eyes.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Completely irrigating one eye before irrigating the second eye is the correct action to take when a client receives a chemical splash on their face. This approach helps prevent the potential spread of the chemical from one eye to the other. Irrigation should be done immediately to flush out the chemical and minimize its harmful effects.
Choice B rationale:
Informing the client to blink their eyes rapidly during the irrigation process is not recommended. Blinking may exacerbate the dispersion of the chemical and could lead to further damage to the eyes. Instead, the client should keep their eyes open during irrigation.
Choice C rationale:
Delaying the irrigation process until the type of chemical in the eyes is identified is not appropriate. Time is critical in minimizing the impact of the chemical on the eyes. Immediate irrigation is essential, regardless of the type of chemical, to remove the substance from the eyes.
Choice D rationale:
Asking the client to count the number of fingers held up by the nurse before irrigating their eyes is not relevant in this situation. The priority is to initiate immediate irrigation to remove the chemical from the eyes. Assessing the client's visual acuity can be done later in the evaluation process after the eyes have been irrigated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:
The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While wearing a protective gown is essential to minimize exposure to bodily fluids and to ensure the nurse's protection, it is not specifically aimed at decreasing the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). The key interventions to prevent VAP focus on maintaining airway hygiene and proper positioning, not just personal protective equipment during suctioning.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring oral secretions every 2 hours is an important strategy in reducing the risk of VAP. Accumulation of secretions in the mouth and upper airway can promote bacterial growth, increasing the risk of aspiration and infection. By regularly assessing and removing secretions, the nurse can reduce the chances of bacteria being aspirated into the lungs and causing pneumonia.
Choice C rationale:
Oral care every 2 hours is a critical intervention to reduce the risk of VAP. Mechanical ventilation predisposes clients to the growth of bacteria in the oral cavity, and poor oral hygiene increases the risk of oral bacteria being aspirated into the lungs. Regular oral care, including brushing teeth, gums, and the tongue, as well as using antiseptic solutions, helps reduce the microbial load in the mouth and decreases the risk of VAP.
Choice D rationale:
Maintaining a client in a supine position is not recommended for preventing VAP. The best practice is to maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle (semi-Fowler's position) to reduce the risk of aspiration. A supine position increases the likelihood of gastric contents or secretions being aspirated into the lungs, which can lead to VAP.
Choice E rationale:
Assessing the client daily for readiness for extubation is an essential practice in preventing VAP. The longer a patient remains intubated, the higher the risk of developing VAP due to prolonged exposure of the endotracheal tube in the airway. Regular assessment for extubation helps to ensure that the client is appropriately weaned off the ventilator as soon as they are stable, reducing the risk of VAP and other complications associated with prolonged ventilation.
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