A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for surgery and has a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Schedule the client for the last surgery of the day.
Place monitoring cords and tubes in a stockinette.
Choose rubber injection ports for fluid administration.
Have phenytoin IV readily available.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Scheduling the client for the last surgery of the day is not directly related to the client's latex allergy. Proper planning for surgery in a latex-allergic client involves addressing potential exposures to latex-containing products and minimizing the risk of allergic reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Placing monitoring cords and tubes in a stockinette can help create a barrier between the client's skin and the latex-containing products. This measure helps reduce the risk of direct contact with latex, which could trigger an allergic reaction in a latex-sensitive individual.
Choice C rationale:
Choosing rubber injection ports for fluid administration is not appropriate for a client with a latex allergy. Rubber products often contain latex, which can lead to an allergic reaction in susceptible individuals.
Choice D rationale:
Having phenytoin IV readily available is not directly relevant to a client with a latex allergy. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication and should be available for clients who require it, but it does not address the specific concern of latex exposure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
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