A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Wash in a distal to proximal direction.
Use a circular motion with the washcloth.
Massage legs after completing the bath.
Disconnect the IV tubing prior to performing the bath.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should wash the client in a distal to proximal direction during a bed bath after a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to prevent the risk of clot dislodgement. This method ensures that any potential clots or debris are moved away from the central circulation, reducing the risk of harm.
Choice B rationale:
Using a circular motion with the washcloth can increase friction and potentially irritate the skin. Clients with a history of CVA might have reduced sensation or mobility, making them susceptible to skin breakdown. Hence, avoiding circular motions is important to prevent skin damage.
Choice C rationale:
Massaging the legs after completing the bath can also pose a risk of clot dislodgement. It is essential to avoid vigorous massage on areas affected by deep vein thrombosis (DVT) to prevent complications like pulmonary embolism.
Choice D rationale:
There is no need to disconnect the IV tubing before performing the bath unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. In general, clients receiving continuous IV infusions can continue the infusion while maintaining proper infection control measures during the bath.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:
The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
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