A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client who has a new diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Place the client on droplet precautions.
Perform a cranial nerve assessment on the client every 2 hr.
Assist the client out of bed three times per day.
Assess the client's weight daily.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client on droplet precautions is appropriate for bacterial meningitis, as it is spread through respiratory droplets. This measure helps prevent the spread of infection to others.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should clarify the prescription to perform a cranial nerve assessment every 2 hours. While cranial nerve assessment is crucial in monitoring neurological status, performing it every 2 hours is excessive and not supported by evidence-based practice. Frequent assessments can be uncomfortable for the client and may not provide additional meaningful information within such a short interval.
Choice C rationale:
Assisting the client out of bed three times per day is essential for promoting mobility and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. This prescription is appropriate and does not require clarification.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the client's weight daily is essential in monitoring fluid balance and nutritional status. There is no need to clarify this prescription, as it is a standard practice in caring for clients with bacterial meningitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.
Choice B rationale:
A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.
Choice C rationale:
The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Providing a continuous passive motion (CPM) device is not necessary for a client following a total hip arthroplasty. CPM devices are more commonly used after knee arthroplasty to improve joint mobility.
Choice B rationale:
Ensuring the client has an elevated toilet seat at home is important following a total hip arthroplasty. The elevated seat reduces the amount of hip flexion required during toileting, which helps prevent hip dislocation and strain on the surgical site.
Choice C rationale:
Providing a trapeze bar is not essential for a client following a total hip arthroplasty. Trapeze bars are typically used to assist with repositioning in bed for clients with limited mobility, but they are not specific to hip arthroplasty recovery.
Choice D rationale:
Providing a compression garment is not necessary after total hip arthroplasty. Compression garments are often used for conditions like venous insufficiency or to manage swelling, but they are not routinely used for hip arthroplasty recovery.
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