A nurse is assessing a client who has a central venous catheter (CVC) with intravenous (IV) fluids infusing. The client suddenly develops shortness of breath, and the nurse notes that the IV tubing and needleless connector device are disconnected. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Close the pinch clamp on the CVC.
Obtain a prescription for stat ABGS (Arterial Blood Gas Studies).
Place the client in the left Trendelenburg position.
Check the tubing for placement of a locking adaptor.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse's first priority in this situation should be to close the pinch clamp on the central venous catheter (CVC). This will prevent air from entering the client's vascular system and causing an air embolism, which can lead to serious complications. Once the clamp is closed, the nurse can then proceed with further assessments and interventions.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining a prescription for stat ABGS (Arterial Blood Gas Studies) is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. While ABGS may be relevant later to assess the client's respiratory status, the immediate concern is to prevent air embolism by closing the disconnected IV tubing.
Choice C rationale:
Placing the client in the left Trendelenburg position is not the first priority in this situation. The Trendelenburg position is used to increase venous return and is typically indicated in cases of hypotension or shock. Closing the clamp to prevent an air embolism should be the nurse's initial action.
Choice D rationale:
Checking the tubing for the placement of a locking adaptor is not the first action the nurse should take. While it is essential to ensure that the IV tubing is properly connected and secured, preventing the air from entering the CVC should take precedence in this urgent situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
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