A nurse is assessing a client who has a central venous catheter (CVC) with intravenous (IV) fluids infusing. The client suddenly develops shortness of breath, and the nurse notes that the IV tubing and needleless connector device are disconnected. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Close the pinch clamp on the CVC.
Obtain a prescription for stat ABGS (Arterial Blood Gas Studies).
Place the client in the left Trendelenburg position.
Check the tubing for placement of a locking adaptor.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse's first priority in this situation should be to close the pinch clamp on the central venous catheter (CVC). This will prevent air from entering the client's vascular system and causing an air embolism, which can lead to serious complications. Once the clamp is closed, the nurse can then proceed with further assessments and interventions.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining a prescription for stat ABGS (Arterial Blood Gas Studies) is not the first action the nurse should take in this situation. While ABGS may be relevant later to assess the client's respiratory status, the immediate concern is to prevent air embolism by closing the disconnected IV tubing.
Choice C rationale:
Placing the client in the left Trendelenburg position is not the first priority in this situation. The Trendelenburg position is used to increase venous return and is typically indicated in cases of hypotension or shock. Closing the clamp to prevent an air embolism should be the nurse's initial action.
Choice D rationale:
Checking the tubing for the placement of a locking adaptor is not the first action the nurse should take. While it is essential to ensure that the IV tubing is properly connected and secured, preventing the air from entering the CVC should take precedence in this urgent situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A 23-year-old client in skeletal traction may be at risk of pressure injuries, but being young and presumably healthier than the other options, this client may have a lower risk compared to the other choices.
Choice B rationale:
A 67-year-old client with coronary artery disease may be at risk of pressure injuries, especially if the client has limited mobility or is bedridden. However, coronary artery disease alone does not significantly increase the risk of pressure injuries.
Choice C rationale:
A 32-year-old client with a spinal cord injury is most at risk of developing a pressure injury. Spinal cord injuries often result in paralysis or limited mobility, leading to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, which can cause pressure ulcers.
Choice D rationale:
A 55-year-old client with emphysema may have compromised lung function, but this alone does not significantly increase the risk of pressure injuries. Pressure injuries are primarily related to immobility and pressure on specific body areas.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Is not suitable for a client who has undergone a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. This exercise may put a strain on the surgical site and cause discomfort or injury.
Choice B rationale:
Is also not appropriate for a postoperative mastectomy client. It involves using the left hand extensively, which could potentially disrupt the healing process and cause pain.
Choice C rationale:
Is not recommended for a postoperative mastectomy client. It involves significant upper body movement, which may not be well-tolerated after surgery, especially with lymph node dissection.
Choice D rationale:
This exercise is suitable for a postoperative mastectomy client as it helps in maintaining hand and arm mobility without putting excessive strain on the surgical site. It also aids in preventing complications like lymphedema, which is a potential concern after lymph node dissection.
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