A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
Administer an enema 1 hr prior to surgery.
Apply a warm pack to the client's lower abdomen.
Place the client on a clear liquid diet.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:

The nurse should maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position to promote comfort and reduce the risk of complications related to appendicitis. This position helps to decrease pressure on the abdomen and may alleviate pain by reducing tension on the abdominal muscles.
Choice B rationale:
Administering an enema 1 hour prior to surgery is not indicated for a client with appendicitis. Enemas are generally not recommended for clients with suspected or confirmed appendicitis as they can potentially worsen inflammation and cause perforation of the inflamed appendix.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a warm pack to the client's lower abdomen is contraindicated in appendicitis. Heat can exacerbate inflammation and should be avoided in such cases.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client on a clear liquid diet is not appropriate for appendicitis. Clients with appendicitis are typically NPO (nothing by mouth) to avoid stimulating the gastrointestinal tract and reduce the risk of rupture if surgery is needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:

The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disc in the eye, which can occur due to increased intracranial pressure. While it may be present in cases of basilar skull fracture, it is not a reliable finding for determining the discharge of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Choice B rationale:
The halo sign is a reliable finding for determining that the nasal discharge is cerebrospinal fluid. The halo sign is characterized by a ring of blood surrounded by a clear or yellowish fluid (CSF) on a dressing or tissue. This occurs because blood from the fracture mixes with the clear CSF, creating a distinct appearance.
Choice C rationale:
Racoon's eyes, also known as periorbital ecchymosis, is a term used to describe bruising around the eyes. While it can be seen in basilar skull fractures, it is not specific to cerebrospinal fluid leakage and, therefore, not reliable for identifying the nasal discharge as CSF.
Choice D rationale:
Elevated white blood cells (WBCs) in the nasal discharge can indicate infection, inflammation, or an immune response. However, it does not provide direct evidence that the discharge is cerebrospinal fluid, so this is not a reliable finding for determining the nature of the nasal discharge in this context.
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