A nurse is planning to administer phenytoin IV via intermittent bolus to a client who has a seizure disorder and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer the medication no faster than 100 mg/min.
Monitor plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range.
Add the medication to the existing IV solution.
Monitor the client for hypertension.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count is an expected manifestation in a client with suspected appendicitis. Inflammation in the appendix leads to an immune response, causing an increase in WBC count.
Choice B rationale:
Elevated amylase level is not typically associated with appendicitis. Elevated amylase is more commonly seen in pancreatitis, not appendicitis.
Choice C rationale:
Rebound tenderness, which refers to increased pain when pressure is released rather than applied, is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The nurse should expect to find rebound tenderness during the abdominal assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Ascites are not a common manifestation of appendicitis. Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and are more commonly seen in liver cirrhosis and certain other conditions, but not in appendicitis.
Choice E rationale:
Anorexia, or loss of appetite, can be seen in clients with appendicitis due to the inflammation and discomfort in the abdominal region.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
the correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that develops in basal cells, a type of cell within the skin that produces new skin cells1.One of the common symptoms of BCC is a pearly white, skin-colored or pink bump1.This can also appear as a shiny or pearly nodule with a smooth surface2.Therefore, a pearly, waxy nodule is a characteristic lesion of basal cell carcinoma
Choice B rationale: An irregular border on a variegated-colored lesion is more commonly associated with melanoma, another type of skin cancer, rather than basal cell carcinoma1.While BCC can have a variety of appearances, an irregular border on a variegated-colored lesion is not typically characteristic of BCC
Choice C rationale: A firm, nodular, crusty, or ulcerated lesion can be a sign of several types of skin conditions, including squamous cell carcinoma, another type of skin cancer1.While BCC can sometimes appear as a firm nodule1, the description of a crusty or ulcerated lesion is not as characteristic of BCC as a pearly, waxy nodule
Choice D rationale: A weeping vesicle is not typically associated with basal cell carcinoma1.BCC lesions are more likely to appear as a shiny bump or nodule, or a flat, scaly patch1.A weeping vesicle could be indicative of a different skin condition
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