A nurse is planning to administer phenytoin IV via intermittent bolus to a client who has a seizure disorder and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer the medication no faster than 100 mg/min.
Monitor plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range.
Add the medication to the existing IV solution.
Monitor the client for hypertension.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement indicates the client's fear and concern about the colostomy's odor, showing a lack of adaptation to the situation.
Choice B rationale:
Comparing the stoma to a strawberry with a hole in it might suggest the client is not fully accepting or understanding the colostomy, indicating a lack of adaptation.
Choice C rationale:
This statement suggests that the client has delegated the task of emptying the colostomy bag to their partner, which indicates a level of acceptance and adaptation to the new situation.
The client trusts their partner with this intimate task, demonstrating a positive sign of adaptation.
Choice D rationale:
Eliminating many foods from the diet suggests difficulty in adjusting to the dietary changes required for managing a colostomy, indicating a lack of full adaptation.
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