A nurse is caring for several clients who are at risk of developing a pressure injury. Which of the following clients is most at risk?
A 23-year-old client who is in skeletal traction.
A 67-year-old client who has coronary artery disease.
A 32-year-old client who has a spinal cord injury.
A 55-year-old client who has emphysema.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
A 23-year-old client in skeletal traction may be at risk of pressure injuries, but being young and presumably healthier than the other options, this client may have a lower risk compared to the other choices.
Choice B rationale:
A 67-year-old client with coronary artery disease may be at risk of pressure injuries, especially if the client has limited mobility or is bedridden. However, coronary artery disease alone does not significantly increase the risk of pressure injuries.
Choice C rationale:
A 32-year-old client with a spinal cord injury is most at risk of developing a pressure injury. Spinal cord injuries often result in paralysis or limited mobility, leading to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, which can cause pressure ulcers.
Choice D rationale:
A 55-year-old client with emphysema may have compromised lung function, but this alone does not significantly increase the risk of pressure injuries. Pressure injuries are primarily related to immobility and pressure on specific body areas.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range, so there is no need to notify the provider of this finding.
Choice B rationale:
A client's temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F) is slightly elevated but not considered a critical finding. It may be indicative of an infection or other mild inflammation, but it does not warrant immediate provider notification.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 5.7 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias, and requires immediate attention from the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Weight loss of 0.8 kg/day (1.8 lb/day) should be evaluated and monitored, but it is not an immediate concern that warrants urgent provider notification.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.