A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for four clients. Which of the following results is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
WBC 11,000/mm² in a client who is starting treatment for a methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection.
Serum pH 7.25 in a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Hematocrit 26% in a client who has sickle cell disease.
Urine specific gravity 1.032 in a client who is diagnosed with dehydration.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A
Rationale:
A) Place the client in a room with negative airflow: Disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) requires airborne precautions because the virus can become aerosolized. A room with negative airflow helps prevent the spread of the virus to other areas, protecting healthcare workers and other patients from infection.
B) Remove isolation gown after leaving the client's room: Isolation gowns should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas. This intervention is important for infection control but is not specific to the requirement for negative airflow in cases of disseminated herpes zoster.
C) Apply ketoconazole to the lesions three times per day: Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication and is not used for treating herpes zoster, which is caused by a viral infection. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, are appropriate for treating herpes zoster lesions.
D) Provide the client with eye protection for ultraviolet B light therapy: Eye protection is necessary during UVB light therapy to protect the eyes, but UVB light therapy is not a standard treatment for disseminated herpes zoster. The priority intervention is to prevent the spread of the infection by using a negative airflow room.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
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