A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fruity-smelling breath is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is not the expected manifestation of chronic kidney disease (CKD). DKA occurs in uncontrolled diabetes and is not the priority for this client.
Choice B rationale:
Painful urination is not a typical clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections or other urological issues.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension may occur in end-stage kidney disease, but it is not specific to chronic kidney disease and is not a priority in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Lethargy is a common clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease due to the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to uremia. It is a priority as it indicates the progression of the disease and the need for close monitoring and intervention.
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