A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assessing the need for oral suction every 4 hours is essential in maintaining airway patency and preventing complications associated with excessive secretions. This is an appropriate action and does not require clarification.
Choice B rationale:
Checking the ventilator settings every 12 hours is necessary to ensure that the mechanical ventilation is providing adequate support for the client's respiratory needs. This prescription is appropriate and does not need clarification.
Choice C rationale:
Keeping the head of the client's bed elevated at 30° is important in preventing aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. This position helps promote optimal lung expansion and improves oxygenation in ventilated clients.
Choice D rationale:
Performing oral hygiene using an alcohol-based oral rinse is not recommended for clients receiving mechanical ventilation. Alcohol-based products can be harmful if aspirated and may disrupt the normal oral flora, leading to complications. The nurse should use a non-alcohol-based oral rinse or foam swabs instead.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
Choice A rationale:
Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma. Improvement in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 85% above their personal best indicates effective bronchodilation and better asthma control.
Choice B rationale:
ABGs showing a pH level of 7.32 are not indicative of the effectiveness of salmeterol. ABG values assess the client's acid-base balance and gas exchange, but they do not directly reflect the action of the medication.
Choice C rationale:
A decrease in forced expiratory volume after treatment with medication indicates a lack of response to the therapy, not an effective outcome. It suggests the medication is not adequately controlling the client's asthma symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Wheezing limited to expiration is not a clear indicator of medication effectiveness. Wheezing can be present in various respiratory conditions and is not solely associated with asthma control. Exhibit. The correct answer is choice B: Increase the rate of the infusion by 160 units/hr.
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