A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A warm left leg is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Warmth indicates adequate circulation to the limb.
Choice B rationale:
A pedal pulse strength of 2 in the left leg indicates diminished pulse but does not require immediate intervention. The nurse should continue to monitor the pulse and report any significant changes to the healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale:
The client's report of pain in the foot of the left leg is an expected finding due to the fractured left femur. Pain is a subjective symptom, and the nurse should address the client's pain appropriately but not intervene immediately based on this finding.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct choice. A capillary refill time of 3 seconds in the left foot suggests impaired circulation, which could be indicative of compartment syndrome or other circulation-related issues. The nurse should intervene immediately by notifying the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.
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