A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer: C. "Insert the entire needle into your skin to administer medication completely."
Rationale:
A) "Administer this medication into your leg muscle."
Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, typically in the abdominal area, not into a muscle. Injecting it intramuscularly can lead to unpredictable absorption and increase the risk of bleeding.
B) "Expel the excess air in the syringe before you administer the medication."
This statement is incorrect. For enoxaparin, it is recommended to retain the air bubble in the syringe. The air bubble helps ensure the entire dose is delivered and minimizes leakage at the injection site.
C) "Insert the entire needle into your skin to administer medication completely."
This is an appropriate instruction as it emphasizes the need to fully insert the needle for effective subcutaneous delivery of enoxaparin. Proper technique is essential to ensure the medication is administered as intended.
D) "Take ibuprofen for fever following administration of this medication."
This recommendation is not advisable because ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when taken concurrently with enoxaparin. The client should consult their healthcare provider for safe alternatives for managing fever or pain.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
Choice A rationale:
Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma. Improvement in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 85% above their personal best indicates effective bronchodilation and better asthma control.
Choice B rationale:
ABGs showing a pH level of 7.32 are not indicative of the effectiveness of salmeterol. ABG values assess the client's acid-base balance and gas exchange, but they do not directly reflect the action of the medication.
Choice C rationale:
A decrease in forced expiratory volume after treatment with medication indicates a lack of response to the therapy, not an effective outcome. It suggests the medication is not adequately controlling the client's asthma symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Wheezing limited to expiration is not a clear indicator of medication effectiveness. Wheezing can be present in various respiratory conditions and is not solely associated with asthma control. Exhibit. The correct answer is choice B: Increase the rate of the infusion by 160 units/hr.
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