A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Providing pin care when the client is 4 hours postoperative is not appropriate. The client has just undergone skeletal traction placement, and pin care is usually initiated after 24 hours to allow for initial wound healing.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the weights from the traction while repositioning the client in bed is unsafe and not recommended. The weights should remain in place to provide continuous traction and alignment for the fractured hip.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the client's circulation every 4 hours is essential to monitor for any signs of impaired circulation, such as swelling, pallor, or decreased pulses. Early detection of circulatory compromise is critical to prevent complications like compartment syndrome.
Choice D rationale:
Requesting the client to perform ankle exercises on the affected extremity is not appropriate after skeletal traction placement. Ankle exercises could disrupt traction and hinder the healing process of the fractured hip.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer: A. Administer furosemide.
Rationales
A. Administer furosemide.
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, helps reduce fluid overload by promoting urinary excretion of sodium and water. In a client with cirrhosis and ascites, it decreases abdominal distention, eases breathing by reducing pressure on the diaphragm, and prevents complications related to severe fluid accumulation.
B. Weigh the client weekly.
Weekly weights would not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with ascites, since fluid retention can change rapidly within hours or days. Daily weights are necessary to detect subtle increases in fluid status and to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment.
C. Offer the client a high-sodium diet.
A high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and ascites, as sodium promotes water retention. Instead, a low-sodium diet is indicated to limit further fluid buildup in the peritoneal cavity.
D. Administer heparin.
Heparin is not a standard intervention for cirrhosis with ascites. Because the diseased liver produces fewer clotting factors, clients are already at risk for bleeding, and anticoagulant therapy would heighten this risk without addressing the underlying problem of fluid accumulation.
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