A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant and has genital herpes simplex virus (HSV). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should take 600 milligrams of ibuprofen every 8 hours for discomfort during an outbreak."
"You will need to have a cesarean birth if there are any visible lesions."
"Your baby's cord blood will be tested to determine if she has contracted HSV."
"You can apply a cortisone cream to the lesions twice each day." .
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Taking ibuprofen during pregnancy is generally not recommended, especially in high doses or for an extended period, as it can increase the risk of complications, including heart defects in the baby. Therefore, advising the client to take 600 milligrams of ibuprofen every 8 hours is not appropriate and potentially harmful during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Having a cesarean birth (C-section) is recommended if there are visible lesions of genital herpes during labor and delivery. This precautionary measure helps prevent the transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) from the mother to the baby, reducing the risk of neonatal herpes infection, which can be severe or even life-threatening.
Choice C rationale:
Testing the baby's cord blood for HSV is not a standard practice. Instead, if there are visible lesions or symptoms of herpes during labor, a C-section is often performed to minimize the risk of transmission. Testing the baby after birth may be done if there are concerns about potential exposure.
Choice D rationale:
Applying a cortisone cream to the lesions is not recommended without medical supervision during pregnancy. Topical corticosteroids, such as cortisone creams, can be absorbed through the skin and may have adverse effects on both the mother and the baby. It is essential to consult a healthcare provider before using any medications or creams during pregnancy to ensure safety for both the mother and the baby.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice c. Swelling of the face.
Choice A rationale:
Urinary frequency is a common symptom during pregnancy, especially in the first and third trimesters, due to hormonal changes and the growing uterus pressing on the bladder. It is generally not a cause for concern unless accompanied by other symptoms like pain or burning during urination, which could indicate a urinary tract infection.
Choice B rationale:
Bleeding gums are also common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that increase blood flow to the gums, making them more sensitive and prone to bleeding. This condition, known as pregnancy gingivitis, is usually not serious but should be managed with good oral hygiene.
Choice C rationale:
Swelling of the face can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to other organs, often the kidneys. Preeclampsia typically occurs after 20 weeks of gestation but can develop earlier. It requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Faintness upon rising, or orthostatic hypotension, is relatively common during pregnancy due to changes in blood circulation. It can usually be managed by rising slowly from a sitting or lying position. However, if fainting is frequent or severe, it should be discussed with a healthcare provider to rule out other underlying conditions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration does not require immediate follow-up care. An induration at the injection site indicates a positive reaction, but further evaluation and management are necessary, not urgent.
Choice B rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care. The normal range for INR in a client taking warfarin is usually 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 1.8 suggests inadequate anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of thromboembolic events. Dose adjustment or other interventions are needed to bring the INR within the therapeutic range.
Choice C rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not necessarily require immediate follow-up care. However, sodium phosphate can cause electrolyte imbalances, so monitoring for any signs of electrolyte disturbances is essential, but it does not mandate urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking bumetanide with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L requires follow-up care. The normal range for potassium is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A potassium level below the normal range (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. The client may need potassium supplements or dietary adjustments to correct the imbalance.
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