A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure and is prescribed captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.).
Avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium.
Report any dry cough to the provider.
Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Drink at least 3 L of fluids per day.
Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is used to treat heart failure by lowering blood pressure and reducing the workload on the heart.
The nurse should include the following instructions when teaching a client who is prescribed captopril:
• Avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Captopril can increase the potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Salt substitutes that contain potassium can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
• Report any dry cough to the provider. A dry cough is a common side effect of captopril and other ACE inhibitors. It is caused by the accumulation of bradykinin, a substance that dilates blood vessels and causes inflammation in the lungs.
The cough can be annoying and interfere with sleep and quality of life. The provider may switch the client to another type of medication if the cough is bothersome.
• Take the medication on an empty stomach. Food can decrease the absorption and effectiveness of captopril. The client should take the medication at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
• Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Captopril can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions.
This can lead to dizziness, fainting, and falls. The client should rise slowly and sit on the edge of the bed for a few minutes before standing up.
Choice D is wrong because drinking at least 3 L of fluids per day is not recommended for clients with heart failure.
Excessive fluid intake can worsen the symptoms of heart failure, such as edema, shortness of breath, and fatigue. The client should limit fluid intake to 2 L or less per day, unless instructed otherwise by the provider.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client has a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg. This indicates that the medication is effective because it lowers the blood pressure below the hypertensive levels.In adults 60 years of age or older, this is typically defined as a systolic pressure below 150 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure below 90 mm Hg.
Choice A is wrong because the client has no edema in the lower extremities. This is not a specific outcome of lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Edema can be caused by many factors, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or venous insufficiency. Lisinopril does not directly affect fluid retention or edema.
Choice B is wrong because the client has a urine output of 30 mL/hr. This is a low urine output that may indicate dehydration, kidney impairment, or urinary obstruction. Lisinopril is expected to increase urine output by reducing the blood pressure and improving the renal blood flow.
Choice D is wrong because the client has a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL. This is a high serum creatinine level that may indicate kidney damage or reduced kidney function. Lisinopril is expected to lower the serum creatinine level by preventing the progression of kidney disease and protecting the kidney from further injury.
Normal ranges of urine output, blood pressure, and serum creatinine are:
• Urine output: 800 to 2000 mL/day or 40 to 80 mL/hr
• Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mm Hg for adults
• Serum creatinine: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for females
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming or growing larger. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. The INR (international normalized ratio) is a measure of how long it takes the blood to clot.The therapeutic range for INR depends on the indication for warfarin therapy, but for atrial fibrillation, it is usually between 2 and 3. An INR level of 3.5 is above the therapeutic range, which means the blood is too thin and the patient is at risk of bleeding. The nurse should hold the warfarin dose and notify the physician, who may order vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
Choice A) Administer vitamin K as ordered by physician is wrong because vitamin K is not indicated unless the physician orders it based on the patient’s condition and INR level.
Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin overdose and can reverse its anticoagulant effects.
However, administering vitamin K without a physician’s order may cause the INR to drop below the therapeutic range and increase the risk of clotting.
Choice B) Administer heparin as ordered by physician is wrong because heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin, a natural inhibitor of clotting factors.
Heparin is used for acute treatment of thromboembolic disorders, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
It is not indicated for atrial fibrillation unless there is evidence of acute thrombosis.
Administering heparin to a patient with an elevated INR would increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C) Administer warfarin as ordered by physician is wrong because warfarin is the cause of the elevated INR and should be withheld until the INR returns to the therapeutic range.
Continuing to administer warfarin would further increase the INR and the risk of bleeding.
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