A nurse is planning to administer mannitol to a client who has heart failure and pulmonary edema. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before giving the medication?
Check the urine output.
Check the blood pressure.
Check the blood glucose.
Check the oxygen saturation.
The Correct Answer is A
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases urine output and decreases intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure. The nurse should check the urine output before giving the medication to ensure adequate renal function and prevent fluid overload and electrolyte imbalance. The normal urine output is 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
Choice B is wrong because checking the blood pressure is not specific to mannitol administration. Mannitol can cause hypotension or hypertension depending on the fluid status of the client, but this is not the priority action before giving the medication.
Choice C is wrong because checking the blood glucose is not relevant to mannitol administration. Mannitol does not affect blood glucose levels.
Choice D is wrong because checking the oxygen saturation is not related to mannitol administration. Mannitol does not affect oxygen saturation levels.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) block the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors on blood vessels and adrenal glands, preventing its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-stimulating effects
Choice A is wrong because beta blockers do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather beta-adrenergic receptors, which are involved in the sympathetic nervous system.Beta blockers reduce heart rate and blood pressure by inhibiting the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline
Choice B is wrong because calcium channel blockers do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather calcium channels, which are involved in the contraction of smooth muscle cells.Calcium channel blockers relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure by reducing the influx of calcium into the cells
Choice D is wrong because direct acting vasodilators do not block angiotensin II receptors, but rather act directly on the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, causing them to relax and dilate.Direct acting vasodilators lower blood pressure by decreasing peripheral resistance
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client has a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg. This indicates that the medication is effective because it lowers the blood pressure below the hypertensive levels.In adults 60 years of age or older, this is typically defined as a systolic pressure below 150 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure below 90 mm Hg.
Choice A is wrong because the client has no edema in the lower extremities. This is not a specific outcome of lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Edema can be caused by many factors, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or venous insufficiency. Lisinopril does not directly affect fluid retention or edema.
Choice B is wrong because the client has a urine output of 30 mL/hr. This is a low urine output that may indicate dehydration, kidney impairment, or urinary obstruction. Lisinopril is expected to increase urine output by reducing the blood pressure and improving the renal blood flow.
Choice D is wrong because the client has a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL. This is a high serum creatinine level that may indicate kidney damage or reduced kidney function. Lisinopril is expected to lower the serum creatinine level by preventing the progression of kidney disease and protecting the kidney from further injury.
Normal ranges of urine output, blood pressure, and serum creatinine are:
• Urine output: 800 to 2000 mL/day or 40 to 80 mL/hr
• Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mm Hg for adults
• Serum creatinine: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for females
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