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A nurse is teaching a client about primary syphilis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A.

"Syphilis can affect many areas of your body, including your brain and heart."

B.

"The chances will go away on their own, and you will no longer have syphilis."

C.

"Syphilis is treated with antiviral medications."

D.

"You can transmit syphilis to a partner during vaginal or anal sex, but not during oral sex."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.    Syphilis can indeed affect many areas of the body, including the brain and heart, but this statement does not specifically address primary syphilis, which is characterized by the appearance of a painless sore (chancre) at the site of infection.
B.    Syphilis does not typically resolve on its own. Without treatment, the infection can progress to more severe stages with potentially serious complications.
C.    Syphilis is caused by a bacterial infection (Treponema pallidum) and is treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. Antiviral medications are not effective against bacterial infections like syphilis.
D.    This statement is accurate and important for the prevention of syphilis transmission. Syphilis can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex, but the risk of transmission is lower during oral sex compared to vaginal or anal intercourse.
 


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A. The patient experiences a decrease in hemoglobin S. Hydroxyurea does not decrease hemoglobin S levels directly; it works by increasing fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F) levels.
B. The patient experiences dehydration due to diuresis. This is not an indication that Hydroxyurea is working; it is a potential side effect that should be monitored.
C. The patient experiences an increase in fetal hemoglobin (Hbg F). Hydroxyurea works by increasing the levels of fetal hemoglobin, which reduces the sickling of red blood cells.
D. The patient needs fewer blood transfusions. Successful treatment with Hydroxyurea should reduce the frequency of vaso-occlusive crises and the need for blood transfusions.
E. The patient experiences diuresis. This is not an indicator of the medication's effectiveness; it is a potential side effect.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.

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