A nurse is teaching a client about dietary recommendations while breastfeeding. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication of understanding the teaching?
"I can have up to three glasses of wine per day while breastfeeding."
"I need to drink a glass of fluid each time I nurse and with all meals."
"I should avoid all seafood while I am breastfeeding."
"I need to eat a bland diet while breastfeeding, as babies often react to spicy food."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. "I can have up to three glasses of wine per day while breastfeeding.": Alcohol passes into breast milk and can affect the infant’s neurologic development and feeding patterns. Regular alcohol intake should be avoided.
B. "I need to drink a glass of fluid each time I nurse and with all meals.": Adequate hydration supports optimal milk production during breastfeeding. Increasing fluid intake each time the mother nurses or eats helps replace fluids lost through lactation and prevents dehydration.
C. "I should avoid all seafood while I am breastfeeding.": Seafood provides essential omega-3 fatty acids that support the infant’s brain and eye development. The mother should only avoid high-mercury fish such as swordfish and king mackerel.
D. "I need to eat a bland diet while breastfeeding, as babies often react to spicy food.": Most infants tolerate varied maternal diets, including spicy foods, without adverse effects. Restricting flavors unnecessarily limits the mother’s nutrition and is not required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pudendal block: A pudendal block is a safe and effective pain management option for a client who is fully dilated and pushing during the second stage of labor. It provides local anesthesia to the perineal area, reducing pain associated with delivery and episiotomy without affecting uterine contractions or the fetus.
B. Naloxone hydrochloride: Naloxone is not a pain medication; it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering naloxone at this stage would not relieve labor pain and is inappropriate unless needed for opioid reversal.
C. Spinal anesthesia: Spinal anesthesia is typically administered before the second stage of labor, such as for a cesarean birth. Administering it when the client is fully dilated and pushing could delay delivery and increase the risk of complications from sudden hemodynamic changes.
D. Butorphanol tartrate: Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist analgesic that can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if given too close to delivery. Since the client is already in the pushing stage, administering this medication poses a risk to the fetus and is therefore unsafe.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Heart failure: The client has classic signs of heart failure, including S3 heart sound, bilateral crackles, lower extremity edema, elevated BNP, and cool extremities, indicating fluid overload and decreased cardiac output. Early identification allows timely interventions to prevent decompensation.
• Obtain a prescription for a diuretic: Diuretics reduce fluid retention, alleviate pulmonary congestion, and improve oxygenation. Administering a diuretic helps manage the client’s edema, dyspnea, and fatigue, reducing cardiac workload.
• Educate the client about sodium restriction : Limiting dietary sodium prevents further fluid retention and helps control blood pressure, reducing the risk of exacerbating heart failure symptoms and hospital readmission.
• Blood pressure: Monitoring BP is essential in heart failure to detect hypotension from decreased cardiac output or over-diuresis. Maintaining safe BP ensures adequate perfusion and guides treatment adjustments.
• Daily weight: Daily weights are a sensitive measure of fluid status. Rapid increases indicate fluid accumulation, allowing early interventions with diuretics or fluid management to prevent worsening heart failure.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis primarily causes systolic murmur, angina, syncope, and sometimes heart failure over time. This client’s presentation is dominated by fluid overload and elevated BNP, with no auscultatory evidence of stenotic valve disease.
• Endocarditis : Endocarditis is associated with fever, positive blood cultures, heart murmurs, and skin lesions like Janeway lesions or Osler nodes. This client has no signs of infection, making endocarditis unlikely.
• Mitral stenosis : Mitral stenosis produces a diastolic murmur, pulmonary congestion, and sometimes atrial fibrillation. While some pulmonary signs may overlap with heart failure, this client lacks the characteristic murmur and risk factors for mitral stenosis.
• Prepare the client for cardioversion : Cardioversion is indicated for arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The client’s heart rhythm is regular, making this action unnecessary.
• Administer antibiotics as prescribed : Antibiotics are used for infections such as endocarditis or sepsis. This client has no fever, abnormal labs, or signs of systemic infection, so antibiotics are not indicated.
• Educate the client about valve replacement : Valve replacement education is relevant only if the client has significant valvular disease. This client’s data show no evidence of aortic or mitral valve pathology, so this action is not needed.
• Fever : Monitoring for fever is critical in infection or sepsis. Since the client’s temperature is normal, this is not an immediate concern.
• Blood cultures : Blood cultures identify bacteremia or endocarditis. The client has no infection indicators; therefore, this parameter is unnecessary.
• Skin lesions : Skin lesions such as Osler nodes or Janeway lesions indicate infective endocarditis. The client shows no such lesions, making monitoring irrelevant in this scenario.
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