A nurse is teaching a client who has a newly documented latex allergy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

I will remove gluten from my diet.

I will remove peanuts from my diet.

I will avoid bananas.

I will avoid dairy products.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Gluten removal is unrelated to latex allergy, which involves immune responses to latex proteins. Gluten pertains to celiac disease, not latex-fruit syndrome. Avoiding gluten does not prevent allergic reactions to latex, making this an incorrect understanding of latex allergy management.
Choice B reason: Peanuts are linked to peanut allergies, not latex. Latex allergy involves IgE-mediated reactions to rubber proteins, not peanut proteins. While allergies may coexist, peanuts lack cross-reactivity with latex, making avoidance irrelevant for managing latex allergy symptoms or risks.
Choice C reason: Avoiding bananas is correct due to latex-fruit syndrome, where latex proteins cross-react with banana proteins like chitinases, causing allergic reactions (e.g., itching, anaphylaxis). This understanding ensures clients avoid trigger foods, reducing risk of allergic responses in latex-sensitive individuals.
Choice D reason: Dairy products are not linked to latex allergy, as they lack cross-reactive proteins. Latex reactions stem from exposure to rubber or related plant proteins, not milk. Avoidance is unnecessary, as dairy does not trigger the immunological responses associated with latex allergy.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A BMI of 32 indicates obesity, a risk factor for surgical wound infections due to impaired tissue perfusion, reduced immune response, and prolonged healing. Excess adipose tissue increases infection likelihood, aligning with evidence-based risk factors, making this the correct finding to identify.
Choice B reason: A temperature of 36.8°C is normal and does not indicate infection risk. Fever (>38°C) post-surgery might suggest infection, but this value reflects stable physiology, making it an incorrect indicator for assessing wound infection risk in this client.
Choice C reason: A white blood cell count of 8,000/mm³ is within normal range (5,000-10,000/mm³) and does not indicate infection risk. Elevated counts suggest active infection, but this value is unremarkable, making it incorrect for identifying infection risk post-surgery.
Choice D reason: A blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is normal (74-106 mg/dL) and does not increase infection risk. Hyperglycemia (>140 mg/dL) impairs immune function, but this value indicates good control, making it incorrect for assessing wound infection risk.

A. A client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2%. B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea. C. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring. D. A client who has hypertension and reports chest pain.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: An HbA1c of 7.2% in type 1 diabetes indicates suboptimal control but is not an acute emergency. This client requires follow-up but is stable compared to life-threatening conditions, so they are not require immediate assessment, making this incorrect for prioritization.
Choice B reason: New-onset tachypnea in a hip fracture client suggests a life-threatening issue like pulmonary embolism, a common complication due to immobility. This requires immediate assessment to ensure airway and circulatory stability, aligning with ABC priorities, making it the correct first action for the nurse to take.
Choice C reason: Sinus arrhythmia is typically benign, especially with cardiac monitoring in place. It does not indicate an immediate threat compared to respiratory distress, so this client can be assessed later, making this incorrect for first priority assessment.
Choice D reason: Chest pain in a hypertensive client is concerning for cardiac issues, but tachypnea in a hip fracture suggests a more acute, potentially fatal condition like pulmonary embolism. Respiratory distress takes precedence, so this is incorrect for immediate assessment.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has a newly documented latex allergy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

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