A nurse is talking with the guardian of a school-aged child recently diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder (IED). The guardian says. "My child is impulsive, acts out aggressively, and then seems pleased with themselves. How can my child be happy?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. A client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL: This glucose level is within normal range for many diabetes management plans.

B. A client who has diabetes insipidus has an intake of 1,500 mL and an output of 1,600 mL in 24 hr: This client may require monitoring but does not indicate an acute crisis.

C. A client who has Graves' disease has a heart rate of 100/min and reports tremors: These symptoms are concerning but do not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation.

D. A client who has a left-sided stroke reports severe headache and is manifesting confusion. These symptoms may indicate worsening conditions such as hemorrhage or increased intracranial pressure. Severe headache and confusion in a stroke patient could indicate a new complication such as hemorrhage or worsening neurological status, requiring urgent assessment and intervention.

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): SLE is an autoimmune disease but is not directly linked to the pathophysiology of HIT.

B. Placental abruption: Placental abruption is a complication of pregnancy and is not a risk factor for HIT.

C. Heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT): Correct Answer. Heparin therapy itself, especially in the treatment of deep-vein thrombosis, is a significant risk factor for developing HIT due to the exposure to heparin.

D. Warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation: Warfarin is not associated with the development of HIT.