A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a pregnant client who is taking digoxin. Which action should the nurse take to best evaluate the client’s medication adherence?
Check the client’s serum medication level.
Determine the client’s apical pulse rate.
Ask the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed.
Assess the client’s kidney function.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice a. Check the client’s serum medication level.
Choice A rationale:
Checking the client’s serum medication level is the most direct and objective method to evaluate medication adherence. It provides a quantifiable measure of the digoxin level in the blood, indicating whether the client is taking the medication as prescribed.
Choice B rationale:
Determining the client’s apical pulse rate is important for monitoring the effects of digoxin, as it can affect heart rate. However, it does not directly measure medication adherence.
Choice C rationale:
Asking the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed relies on self-reporting, which can be inaccurate due to forgetfulness or intentional non-disclosure.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the client’s kidney function is important for dosing and monitoring potential side effects of digoxin, but it does not directly evaluate medication adherence.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ovulation will indeed remain the same after a tubal ligation. The procedure involves blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes, which prevents the egg from reaching the uterus. However, the ovaries continue to release eggs.
Choice B rationale
A tubal ligation procedure does not affect the length of the menstrual period. The menstrual cycle is regulated by hormones, not the patency of the fallopian tubes.
Choice C rationale
Premenstrual tension or premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is not eliminated by tubal ligation. PMS is related to the hormonal changes that occur during the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale
Hormone replacements are not needed following a tubal ligation. The ovaries continue to produce hormones as they did before the procedure.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Vacuum-assisted delivery is indeed a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This method of delivery can cause trauma to the birth canal, which can lead to increased bleeding after delivery.
Choice B rationale
A history of human papillomavirus (HPV) is not typically associated with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
The newborn’s weight, whether high or low, is not typically considered a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
Labor induction with oxytocin is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is a drug that can cause the uterus to contract too much, leading to uterine atony (a condition where the uterus doesn’t contract properly after birth), which can result in postpartum hemorrhage.
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