A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a female client who is receiving furosemide and digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize increases the client's risk for developing digoxin toxicity?
Potassium 3.1 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
WBC count 12,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)
Fasting glucose 150 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
Triglycerides 140 mg/dL (35 to 135 mg/dL)
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L): Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because low potassium levels enhance digoxin’s effects on the myocardium, potentially leading to arrhythmias and other toxic effects. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial for clients taking digoxin, especially when on diuretics like furosemide.
B. WBC count 12,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³): An elevated WBC may indicate infection or inflammation but does not directly influence digoxin toxicity. This finding requires assessment but is not a risk factor for digoxin-related complications.
C. Fasting glucose 150 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL): Elevated glucose reflects hyperglycemia but does not affect digoxin levels or toxicity risk. It should be managed separately according to the client’s metabolic needs.
D. Triglycerides 140 mg/dL (35 to 135 mg/dL): Mildly elevated triglycerides are a cardiovascular risk factor but do not directly increase the likelihood of digoxin toxicity. Lipid management is a separate consideration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. INR: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. It standardizes prothrombin time results, allowing clinicians to determine whether the client’s anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting without causing excessive bleeding.
B. Factor VIII: Factor VIII is a clotting factor assessed in hemophilia or other coagulation disorders. It is not used to monitor warfarin therapy and does not indicate the therapeutic effect of anticoagulation.
C. Bleeding time: Bleeding time measures platelet function and vascular integrity, but it does not assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. It is unrelated to monitoring warfarin dosing.
D. aPTT: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. It does not provide information about the client’s warfarin anticoagulation status.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Heart failure: The client has classic signs of heart failure, including S3 heart sound, bilateral crackles, lower extremity edema, elevated BNP, and cool extremities, indicating fluid overload and decreased cardiac output. Early identification allows timely interventions to prevent decompensation.
• Obtain a prescription for a diuretic: Diuretics reduce fluid retention, alleviate pulmonary congestion, and improve oxygenation. Administering a diuretic helps manage the client’s edema, dyspnea, and fatigue, reducing cardiac workload.
• Educate the client about sodium restriction : Limiting dietary sodium prevents further fluid retention and helps control blood pressure, reducing the risk of exacerbating heart failure symptoms and hospital readmission.
• Blood pressure: Monitoring BP is essential in heart failure to detect hypotension from decreased cardiac output or over-diuresis. Maintaining safe BP ensures adequate perfusion and guides treatment adjustments.
• Daily weight: Daily weights are a sensitive measure of fluid status. Rapid increases indicate fluid accumulation, allowing early interventions with diuretics or fluid management to prevent worsening heart failure.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis primarily causes systolic murmur, angina, syncope, and sometimes heart failure over time. This client’s presentation is dominated by fluid overload and elevated BNP, with no auscultatory evidence of stenotic valve disease.
• Endocarditis : Endocarditis is associated with fever, positive blood cultures, heart murmurs, and skin lesions like Janeway lesions or Osler nodes. This client has no signs of infection, making endocarditis unlikely.
• Mitral stenosis : Mitral stenosis produces a diastolic murmur, pulmonary congestion, and sometimes atrial fibrillation. While some pulmonary signs may overlap with heart failure, this client lacks the characteristic murmur and risk factors for mitral stenosis.
• Prepare the client for cardioversion : Cardioversion is indicated for arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The client’s heart rhythm is regular, making this action unnecessary.
• Administer antibiotics as prescribed : Antibiotics are used for infections such as endocarditis or sepsis. This client has no fever, abnormal labs, or signs of systemic infection, so antibiotics are not indicated.
• Educate the client about valve replacement : Valve replacement education is relevant only if the client has significant valvular disease. This client’s data show no evidence of aortic or mitral valve pathology, so this action is not needed.
• Fever : Monitoring for fever is critical in infection or sepsis. Since the client’s temperature is normal, this is not an immediate concern.
• Blood cultures : Blood cultures identify bacteremia or endocarditis. The client has no infection indicators; therefore, this parameter is unnecessary.
• Skin lesions : Skin lesions such as Osler nodes or Janeway lesions indicate infective endocarditis. The client shows no such lesions, making monitoring irrelevant in this scenario.
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