A nurse is caring for a client who is dilated to 10 cm and pushing. Which of the following pain-management measures should the nurse identify as a safe option for the client?
Butorphanol tartrate
Pudendal block
Naloxone hydrochloride
Spinal anesthesia
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Butorphanol tartrate: This opioid analgesic can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if given too close to delivery. At 10 cm dilation and during pushing, it's generally too late to administer systemic opioids safely.
B. Pudendal block: A pudendal block provides localized perineal anesthesia and is safe for use during the second stage of labor when the client is fully dilated and pushing. It effectively reduces pain from stretching and pressure without affecting uterine contractions or fetal status.
C. Naloxone hydrochloride: Naloxone is not a pain-management measure; it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. It does not provide analgesia and is not administered for pain relief during labor.
D. Spinal anesthesia: Spinal anesthesia is typically administered prior to a planned cesarean birth or late in the first stage of labor. It is not appropriate once the client is fully dilated and actively pushing, as it could delay delivery and complicate maternal positioning.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Limited hip abduction: Limited abduction of the hips in a 1-month-old can indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). This finding warrants further evaluation, such as ultrasound imaging, to rule out structural abnormalities and initiate early treatment if needed.
B. Equal leg length: Equal leg length is a normal finding and does not require intervention. Leg length discrepancies are more concerning and often associated with hip dislocation or other musculoskeletal conditions.
C. Symmetric gluteal and thigh skin folds: Symmetry in the gluteal and thigh folds is a reassuring sign that typically rules out DDH. Asymmetry would be more suggestive of a hip abnormality requiring follow-up.
D. Femoral head remains in the acetabulum during the Barlow maneuver: This is a normal finding. The Barlow test assesses for hip instability, and if the femoral head remains stable within the socket, no further evaluation is needed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Monitor the client for hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia is not a common complication of bacterial meningitis. More relevant concerns include increased intracranial pressure, fever, and potential neurological damage, rather than altered glucose metabolism.
B. Perform range-of-motion exercises once per shift: While maintaining mobility is important, this is not a priority during the acute phase of bacterial meningitis. The client may be photophobic, confused, or in too much discomfort for routine exercises early in treatment.
C. Place the client in high-Fowler's position: High-Fowler’s can increase discomfort and may worsen meningeal irritation. A more appropriate position is 30 degrees with head midline to promote venous drainage and reduce intracranial pressure.
D. Implement seizure precautions: Seizures are a potential complication of bacterial meningitis due to inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, and irritation of the cerebral cortex. Seizure precautions are a critical safety measure in the acute phase of care.
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