A nurse is caring for a client in a community health clinic who has a new diagnosis of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following information should the nurse include when teaching the client about the infection?
Having no vesicles prevents the spread of transmission.
Antibiotics are the primary treatment for this infection.
It is a latent infection that may reactivate periodically.
It is recommended any partners receive a vaccine to prevent this infection.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Having no vesicles prevents the spread of transmission: HSV-2 can be transmitted even when no visible lesions are present through asymptomatic viral shedding. The client should use barrier protection, such as condoms, during all sexual activity to reduce transmission.
B. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for this infection: HSV-2 is a viral infection, and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. The mainstay of treatment involves antiviral medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir.
C. It is a latent infection that may reactivate periodically: HSV-2 remains dormant in nerve ganglia after the initial infection and can reactivate intermittently, leading to recurrent outbreaks triggered by stress, illness, or immunosuppression.
D. It is recommended any partners receive a vaccine to prevent this infection: There is currently no vaccine available to prevent HSV-2 infection. Prevention relies on consistent condom use, abstaining during outbreaks, and open communication with sexual partners about infection status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Fundal height: The fundus has descended to 4 cm below the umbilicus and remains firm, indicating effective involution of the uterus and improvement from the previously boggy, tender fundus.
B. Heart rate: The client’s heart rate has decreased from 110/min on postpartum day 3 to 88/min on day 5, reflecting stabilization and decreased physiologic stress.
C. Hgb: Hemoglobin decreased slightly from 11.1 g/dL to 10 g/dL. While this is a minor drop, it does not indicate improvement and may reflect ongoing blood loss or hemodilution postpartum.
D. Temperature: The client’s temperature has normalized to 37.2° C (99° F) from febrile readings of 38.6° C (101.5° F), indicating resolution of the infection or inflammatory process.
E. WBC count: The WBC count decreased from 33,000/mm³ to 10,000/mm³, demonstrating resolution of the previous leukocytosis associated with infection or postpartum inflammation.
F. Lochia: Lochia has decreased in amount, is brownish-red without odor, indicating normal postpartum progression and resolution of the previously foul-smelling discharge, signifying improvement.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³): A normal white blood cell count indicates that the body is not currently mounting an inflammatory or infectious response. This finding does not place the client at risk for developing a wound infection.
B. Temperature 36.8° C (98° F): A normal temperature suggests that the client is afebrile and not showing signs of infection or systemic inflammation. This finding reflects stable postoperative recovery and is not a risk factor for infection.
C. Body mass index of 32: Obesity increases the risk for surgical wound infection because excess adipose tissue has poor blood supply, impairing oxygen and nutrient delivery needed for wound healing. Additionally, increased tension on the incision site can lead to dehiscence and bacterial colonization.
D. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL): A normal blood glucose level supports effective immune function and normal wound healing. Hyperglycemia, not euglycemia, would predispose the client to infection by impairing leukocyte function.
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