A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is being transferred to hospice care. The client's daughter tells the nurse, "I'm not sure what to say to my mom if she asks me about dying." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
"Tell me how you are feeling about your mom dying."
"You sound like you have questions about your mom dying. Let's talk about it."
"Let's talk about your mom's cancer and how things will progress from here."
"Tell her not to worry. She still has plenty of time left."
"Hospice will take good care of your mom, so I wouldn't worry about that."
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Rationale:
A. "Tell me how you are feeling about your mom dying.": This encourages the daughter to express her emotions, which is an important first step in processing grief and finding the right words to support her mother. It shows empathy and opens a therapeutic conversation.
B. "You sound like you have questions about your mom dying. Let's talk about it.": This response invites the daughter to engage in a meaningful discussion about her concerns. It provides emotional support and creates a safe space for her to ask questions and gain clarity.
C. "Let's talk about your mom's cancer and how things will progress from here.": Educating the daughter about the disease process and what to expect during hospice care can reduce anxiety and help her feel more prepared to have honest conversations with her mother.
D. "Tell her not to worry. She still has plenty of time left.": This response offers false reassurance and avoids the reality of the situation. It can prevent the daughter from addressing important emotional or end-of-life discussions with her mother.
E. "Hospice will take good care of your mom, so I wouldn't worry about that.": Although hospice provides excellent care, this response shifts the focus away from the daughter’s emotional needs and discourages open communication about death and dying.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Bleeding time: This test evaluates platelet function and capillary integrity, not anticoagulation status. It is not used to monitor warfarin therapy.
B. aPTT: Activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Warfarin affects different clotting factors primarily measured by PT/INR.
C. Factor VIII: This assesses clotting factor levels, particularly relevant in hemophilia A. It does not provide information about warfarin’s anticoagulant effects.
D. INR: The International Normalized Ratio is the standard test used to monitor warfarin therapy. It adjusts for variability in PT results and determines if warfarin is in the therapeutic range.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Attempt to void every 2 hours.": Scheduled voiding helps reduce the likelihood of bladder overfilling and decreases episodes of leakage, especially in stress incontinence where physical pressure causes urine loss.
B. "Perform Kegel exercises several times daily.": Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which support the bladder and urethra. Regular practice improves muscle tone and helps control urine leakage during activities like coughing or sneezing.
C. "Maintain a daily fluid intake of 1,000 to 1,200 mL/day.": Limiting fluids excessively can lead to concentrated urine and bladder irritation, increasing urgency and risk of infection. A moderate, well-balanced intake closer to 1,500–2,000 mL/day is generally recommended.
D. "Take prescribed diuretics no later than 2000.": While relevant for fluid management, it's not a direct or primary instruction specifically for treating or managing stress incontinence itself. Diuretics increase urine production, which could potentially worsen incontinence.
E. "Maintain optimal body weight for height.": Excess weight increases abdominal pressure on the bladder, worsening stress incontinence. Achieving and maintaining a healthy weight can reduce symptoms and support pelvic muscle strength.
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