The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at greatest risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
- Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
- Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
- Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Maintain the client in a supine position for 24 hours following surgery.": Prolonged supine positioning increases the risk of pulmonary complications such as atelectasis. Early mobilization and elevating the head of the bed help promote lung expansion and reduce postoperative risks.
B. "Expect the client to have a palpable distended bladder following surgery.": A distended bladder is not expected and may indicate urinary retention, a common complication after anesthesia. The nurse should assess and address it promptly, rather than consider it normal.
C. "Report bleeding that saturates the client's dressing.": Active bleeding that saturates a postoperative dressing may indicate hemorrhage and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding is critical to prevent further complications like hypovolemia or shock.
D. "Ensure the client's urinary output is no less than 20 mL per hour.": Urine output should be at least 30 mL per hour in adults. A rate below this may indicate hypoperfusion or renal impairment and should prompt further assessment and intervention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Consult the pharmacist about potential interactions between the client's regular medications and warfarin: Warfarin has numerous drug interactions that can increase bleeding risk or reduce effectiveness. Consulting the pharmacist ensures a thorough review of the client’s medication list for potential harmful interactions before discharge.
B. Tell the client they can continue to drink cranberry juice while taking warfarin: Cranberry juice can potentiate the effects of warfarin and increase bleeding risk by interfering with its metabolism. Clients should be advised to limit or avoid cranberry products.
C. Recommend the client take warfarin at the same time as other medications: Warfarin should be taken at the same time each day, but taking it with other medications may cause interactions. The timing should consider spacing it from medications that might interfere with absorption or potency.
D. Advise the client that over-the-counter medications remain safe to consume as needed: Many OTC medications, especially NSAIDs, can increase bleeding risk when combined with warfarin. Clients need to check with a healthcare provider before taking any new OTC drugs.
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