The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at greatest risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
- Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
- Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
- Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Butorphanol tartrate: This opioid analgesic can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if given too close to delivery. At 10 cm dilation and during pushing, it's generally too late to administer systemic opioids safely.
B. Pudendal block: A pudendal block provides localized perineal anesthesia and is safe for use during the second stage of labor when the client is fully dilated and pushing. It effectively reduces pain from stretching and pressure without affecting uterine contractions or fetal status.
C. Naloxone hydrochloride: Naloxone is not a pain-management measure; it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. It does not provide analgesia and is not administered for pain relief during labor.
D. Spinal anesthesia: Spinal anesthesia is typically administered prior to a planned cesarean birth or late in the first stage of labor. It is not appropriate once the client is fully dilated and actively pushing, as it could delay delivery and complicate maternal positioning.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pale and a 24-hr fluid deficit of 30 mL: Mild pallor and a small fluid deficit are not uncommon in early stages of illness and may not require immediate intervention. However, more serious signs of dehydration would take priority for reporting.
B. Temperature 38° C (100.4° F) and pulse rate 124/min: These are within expected limits for an infant with mild infection or fever. While they should be monitored, they are not urgent indicators of severe complications from gastroenteritis.
C. Decreased appetite and irritability: These are common symptoms in infants with viral illnesses, including gastroenteritis. Although they affect comfort and feeding, they are not necessarily indicators of serious fluid or electrolyte imbalance.
D. Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes: These are clinical signs of moderate to severe dehydration, which is a serious complication of gastroenteritis in infants. These findings must be reported promptly for urgent intervention to prevent further deterioration.
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